WBJEE 2014 BIOLOGICAL Sc. ANSWER

WBJEE 2014 BIOLOGICAL Sc. ANSWER

CATEGORY – I

Q.1 to Q.60 carry one mark each, for which only one option is correct. Any wrong answer will lead to deduction of 1/3 mark.

 

1. One molecule of triglyceride is produced using ………………..

Ans : (D) Three fatty acids and one glycerol

 

2. Glutenin is an important protein in……………….

Ans : (B) Wheat

 

3. Which one of the followings is enriched with a non-reducing sugar ……………..

Ans : (C) Table sugar (Sucrose)

 

4. Select the CORRECT statement related to mitosis……………….

Ans : (B) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first doubled and then distributed into two daughter cells

 

5. The frequency of crossing-over occurring between two genes located on the same chromosome depends on……………………….

Ans : (D) Distance between two genes

 

6. Chlorophyll molecules are located in the………………….

Ans : (A) Thylakoid membrane

 

7. The primary cell wall is mainly made up of………………………

Ans : (C) Cellulose

 

8. Which of the folloiwng statements is wrong for sucrose ……………………

Ans : (D) It is comprised of maltose and fructose

 

9. Which of the followings is always ABSENT in prokaryotic cells ……………….

Ans : (B) Mitochondria

 

10. Which of the following tissues provide maximum mechanical support to plant organs …………….

Ans : (A) Sclerenchyma

 

11. The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of glucose is……………..

Ans : (C) 1.0

 

12. Cross-pollination through insect agent is called…………………………..

Ans : (C) Entomophily

 

13. Cleistogamous flowers are ……………………..

Ans : (B) ) Bisexual flowers which remain closed

 

14. Which one of the following is a growth regulator produced by plants ……………..

Ans : (B) Zeatin

 

Hints : Zeatin is a growth regulator produced by plants. Naphthalene acetic acid is synthetic auxin, also a growth regulator.

 

15. In apple, the edible portion is…………………

Ans : (D) Thalamus

 

16. Anish is having colour-blindness and married to Sheela, who is not colour-blind. What is the chance that their son will have the disease …………………………

Ans : (D) 0%

 

Hints : Marriage between Sheela (XX) and Anish (XcY) : Colour blind daughter and normal son.

 

17. Insect pest resistant Bt-cotton plant was developed using……………

Ans : (D) Transgenic technology

 

18. In which one of the followings, expenditure of energy is required …………….

Ans : (C) Active transport

 

19. Emasculation ensures cross-pollination in…………………..

Ans : (B) Bisexual flower

 

20. The protein component of a holoenzyme is known as

Ans : (D) Apoenzyme

 

Hints : the non-protein part of an enzyme is called the prosthetic group, while the proteinic part is apoenzyme. Apoenzyme along with the prosthetic group constitute the holoenzyme.

 

21. Pseudopodia are produced by…………………….

(A) Plasma Cell (B) Mast Cell

(C) Adipose Cell (D) Fibroblast Cell

 

Ans : Question may be ambiguous.

 

In humans, many cell types are able to move in an amoeboid fashion. These include plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophil granulocytes and mast cells within tissues, but also lymphocytes and monocytes in the blood.

 

22. Formation of polysome does not require……………..

Ans : (D) snRNA

 

23. Km is …………………..

Ans : (C) Constant

 

24. Proteins helping in Kinetocore formation of yeast are…………………

Ans : (D) CBF2, CBF3 and Kar3P

 

25. Juvenile hormone in insects is released from

Ans : (C) Corpora Allata

 

26. Genes which are located only in the X-Chromosome are known as

(A) Epistasis genes (B) Holandrik genes (C) Operator genes (D) Antiepistasis genes

 

Ans : Question may be ambiguous.

Of the four answer option, favour goes toward (A) Epistasis genes.

 

 

27. Industrial Melanism is an ………………

Ans : (D) Evidence in favour of Natural Selection

 

Hints : Industrial melanism is an example of directional selection (evidence of Natural Selection).

 

28. The concept of Hot-Spot was first introduced by…………..

Ans : (C) Myers

 

29. With the rise of water temperature, dissolved oxygen………………

Ans : (C) Decreases in amount

 

30. Intermediate host of malarial parasite is…………………

Ans : (B) Man

 

31. Which codon is not an indicator of completion of protein synthesis …………………..

(A) UAG (B) AUG (C) UAA (D) UGA

Ans : (B) AUG

 

Hint. Start Signal : Synthesis of polypeptideis initiated by two initiation codon – AUG or methionine codon and GUG or valine codon.

Stop Signal : Termination of polypeptide chain is signalled by three termination codons -UAA (ochre),       UAG (amber) and UGA (opal).

 

32. ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is a multination international treaty for………………………

Ans : (A) Phasing out green house gases

 

33. The objective of ‘Ramsar Convention’ was……………………….

Ans : (C) Wetland conservation

 

34. Which of the following human parasites require mosquito to complete their life-cycle………

Ans : (D) Wuchereria bancrofti and Plasmodium ovale

 

35. In which diagnostic system, Piezoelectric effect and Reverse Piezoelectric effect are involved………

Ans : (C) USG

 

36. Main cause of Eutrophication is……………………

Ans : (C) Enrichment of nutrients

 

37. The body of Rohu fish is covered by………………….

Ans : (A) Cycloid scale but the tail is homocercal

 

38. Management of National Park is controlled by……………………..

Ans : (B) Central Government

 

39. Which one is an example of living fossil …………………….

Ans : (D) King crab

 

40. The removal of ‘Keystone’ species will affect………………………

Ans : (C) The ecosystem

 

41. Objects less than 0.2 μm in size cannot be seen under light microscope because

Ans : (A) The wave length of visible light is 3900 Å to 7800 Å

 

42. If the sequence of bases in the coding strand of a double stranded DNA is

5′ – GTTCGAGTC-3′, the sequence of bases in its transcript will be ………………….

Ans : (C) 5′ – GUUCGAGUC-3′

 

Hints : Transcription occurs in 5′ -3′  (5 to 3) direction.

Base Pairing. Ribonucleoside triphos­phates get arranged opposite to the nitrogen bases of sense strand and form complementary pairs such as A opposite T, U opposite A, C opposite G and G opposite C.

 

43. Immunity that develops in the fetus after receiving antibodies from mother’s blood through placenta is

Ans : (C) Naturally acquired passive immunity

 

44. The serous membrane which covers the lungs is called………………………….

Ans : (D) Pleura

 

45. The volume of air that can be breathed in by maximum forced inspiration over and above the normal inspiration is called………………………………

Ans : (B) Inspiratory Reserved Volume

 

 

46. How many ATP are produced when one molecule of FADH2 is oxidized to FAD through Electron Transport System……………………

Ans : (A) 2

 

47. Which valve is present at the opening of coronary sinus…………………….

Ans : (C) Thebesian valve

 

Hints : Valve at the junction of coronary sinus and right auricle – Thebesian valve

Valve at the junction of superior vena cava and right auricle – valve of superior vena cava – crista terminalis.

 

48. Which of the following organs does not produce any digestive enzymes………………….

Ans : (C) Liver

 

49. The disease that occurs in mature adult human being due to deficiency of calciferol is……….

Ans : (B) Osteomalacia

 

50. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by phagocytosis

Ans : (C) Neutrophil and Monocyte

 

51. Which excitatory neurotransmitter is involved in the transmission of impulse at the neuro-muscular junction……………………

Ans : (C) Acetyl choline

 

52. Which area of cerebral cortex is responsible for the interpretation of speech…………..

Ans : (B) Wernicke’s area

 

Hints : Brocca’s area : (area 44) is a region in posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the brain. It is Motor area for speech and linked with speech production. Broca’s area initiates the appropriate movements of the lips, tongue.

 

Wernicke’s area : (area 22) is a region in the posteriormost part of the superior temporal gyrus of the brain. It is auditory psychic area and interpretes and understands the word of speech.

 

53. Which of the following pituitary hormones is secreted without the involvement of a releasing hormone (RH)……………

Ans : (C) Oxytocin

 

54. Which of the following hormones is a derivative of fatty acid………………………..

Ans : (D) Prostaglandins

 

55. Which of the followings is NOT involved in muscular contraction…………………

Ans : (D) Magnesium ion

 

56. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron is responsible for……………….

Ans : (C) Selective reabsorption of glucose, amino acid, NaCl and water

 

57. Which of the following processes was discovered by Lederberg and Tatum (1946)…………

Ans : (D) Conjugation

 

Hint : Bacterial conjugation was first demostrated by Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum in 1946.

 The phenomenon of Transduction was first observed by Zinder and J. Lederberg in 1952.

 

58. The component of bacteria that retains the crystal violet stain during Gram-staining is………

Ans : (C) Peptidoglycan

 

59. Which of the following bacteria is observed as chain-like formation………………

Ans : (C) Sreptococcus pyogenes

 

60. During gene cloning, the enzyme used to join the insert DNA with the plasmid vector is

Ans : (A) DNA ligase

CATEGORY – II

Q.61 to Q.75 carry two marks each, for which only one option is correct. Any wrong answer will lead to deduction of 2/3 mark

 

61. The partial floral formula of a flower is K(5)C5A(∞)G(5). Which of the following set of information is conveyed here………………….

Ans : (A) Gamosepalous, polypetalous, syncarpous and superior ovary

 

62. In a plant species, flower colour yellow is dominant over white, and fruit shape round is dominant over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines-one having yellow-flower and round-fruit, and another with white flower and elongated-fruit. About 20 plants survived in F1 progeny. Plants of F1 were allowed to self-fertilize, and about 960 plants survived in F2. If the traits follow Mendelian inheritance, the number of plants would have yellow-flower and round-fruit in F1 and F2 are respectively …………….

 

Ans : (B) 20, 540

 

63. Match the items in column I with those in column II, and choose the CORRECT answer.

Column I Column II

P. Control of weeds                            i. Gibberellin

Q. Induction of germination               ii. Cytokinin

R. Ripening of fruit                            iii. 2, 4-D

S. Delaying of senescence                  iv. Ethylene

 

Ans : (B ) P-iii, Q-i, R-iv, S-ii

 

64. Out of 38 molecules of ATP produced upon aerobic respiration of glucose, the break up in ATP production in glycolysis (P), pyruvate to acetyl-CoA formation (Q) and Krebs cycle (R) is as follows ………………………………

 

Ans : (B) P = 8, Q = 6, R = 24

 

65. The correct sequence of organelles in which glycolate and glyoxylate are produced sequentially in photorespiration, is…………………………….

 

Ans : (B) Chloroplast and peroxisome

 

66. Cells die at the time of release of secretary materials in…………………………

Ans : (A) Holocrine gland

 

67. X-ray is needed for………………………..

Ans : (B) CT scanning

 

68. Which of the following statements is wrong……………………….

Ans : (D) Test tube baby grows following uterine fertilization

 

69. The correct sequence of embryonic development is…………………

Ans : (C) Zygote – Morula – Blastula – Gastrula – Embryo

 

70. The time interval of appearance of fever in the malarial patients depends on the types of malaria. The research evidences suggest that such time intervals are – (1) 36 to 48 hours, (2) 48 hours, and (3) 72 hours. If any such patient experiences fever at an interval of 48 hours, then the said patient suffers from………………………

 

Ans : (D) Mild tertian malaria or Benign tertian malaria

 

Hints : With a 48-hour cycle fever recur every third day in milld (ovale) tertian malaria caused by P. ovale and benign tertian malaria by P.vivax

 

71. The structure of E. coli chromosomal DNA is ……………………………

Ans : (A) Double stranded, right handed and circular

 

72. Absorption of vitamin B12 in human requires “P” glycoprotein secreted form “Q”. The correct choice of P and Q are……………………………………

 

Ans : (B)  P = Intrinsic factor and Q = Stomach

 

73. What type of cartilaginous tissue is found in the inter-vertebral discs………………………

Ans : (C) White fibrous cartilage

 

74. If spermatogenesis proceeds too rapidly, inhibin is released. Inhibin reduces the secretion of….

Ans : (B) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

 

75. Which of the following statements are TRUE for “Motor cortex” ?

(i) It is located in the frontal lobe of cerebral cortex (ii) It contains pyramidal cells

(iii) It is responsible for all visual functions (iv) It is essential for our thought processes

(v) It stimulates wakefulness (vi) It regulates voluntary muscular movements ……………

 

Ans : (D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)

 

 

CATEGORY – III

Q.76 to Q.80 carry two marks each, for which one or more than one options may be correct. Marking of correct options will lead to a maximum mark of two on pro rata basis. There will be no negative marking for these questions. However, any marking of wrong option will lead to award of zero mark against the respective question – irrespective of the number of correct options marked.

 

 

76. Identify the correct statement (s) in relation to C4 photosynthesis………………………….

 

Ans : (A) Kranz anatomy is an essential feature for C4 plants

           (B) C4 plants have higher water use efficiency than C3 plants

           (C) Photrespiration can be minimized when C4 pathway is in operation

 

77. Genetically improved crop varieties can be developed in laboratory by…………………

 

Ans : (A) Somatic hybridization

          (B) Transgenic technology

          (D) Somaclonal variation

 

78. Sand flies play significant role in spreading Kala-azar because they……………………….

 

Ans : (B) Convert amastigote into promastigote

          (C) Engulf amastigote at the time of blood sucking from the infected persons

          (D) Inject promastigote into the body of non-infected persons at the time of blood sucking

 

 

79. Which of the following factor(s) increase blood pressure ……………….

Ans : (A) Increase of cardiac output

         (B) Constriction of blood vessel

         (D) Increase of blood volume

 

 

80. Which of the following statement(s) are TRUE?

(A) Antibiotics can kill bacteria but disinfectants do not

(B) Disinfectants have better bactericidal efficiency than antibiotics

(C) Antibiotics are of microbial origin but disinfectants are chemical compounds

(D) Antibiotics can be injected into the patients whereas disinfectants are not

 

Ans : (C) Antibiotics are of microbial origin but disinfectants are chemical compounds

          (D) Antibiotics can be injected into the patients whereas disinfectants are not

 

Hints : Antibacterial compounds include narrow and wide spectrum antibiotics. Disinfectants include propylene glycol and triethylene glycol, alcohol, oxidizing agents, phenolics.

Antibacterial products can be administered orally, topically or intravenously. Disinfectants can be dispersed in the air or locally applied with cotton rags.

*    An antibacterial compound is designed to kill bacteria (bactericidal) or impede their growth (bacteriostatic). A disinfectant compound is a substance applied on non-living objects designed to kill microorganisms (bactericidal).

 

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WBJEE – 2014

MODEL QUESTION PAPER

(Biological Sciences)

 Category I: Questions carrying one mark each (questions 1 to 22)

1. Plant cells are totipotent because

(A) they can survive under wide range of temperature

(B) they can be preserved under suitable condition

(C) they can be easily multiplied  (D)they can be regenerated to a mature plant                                                                       Ans. (D)

2. The ultimate source of energy for the biological processes is

(A) sunlight (B) chemical bonds (C) thermal radiation (D) ATP

                                                                                Ans. (A)

3. The senescence in plants is associated with the synthesis of

(A) IAA  (B) NAA  (c) ABA  (D) GA                       Ans. (C)

4. Hydrolytic enzymes are found in

(A) Peroxisome (B) glyoxysome (C) Lysosome (D) ribosome

                                                                                 Ans. (C)

5. Which of the following metals is associated with nitrogenese

(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Mn (D) Mo                                  Ans. (D)

6. A C4 plant is photosynthetically more efficient than a C3 plant because of

(A) low photorespiration (B) its ability to generate more ATP

(C ) thicker leaves (D) its ability to trap more sunlight -

Ans. (A)

7. The protein molecule serves as an electron carrier is

(A)NAD (B) FAD (C ) Ferredoxin (D) NADP       Ans. (C)

8. Cu is an essential component of

(A) cytochrome oxidase (B) carbonic anhydrase

(c) peroxidose (D) alcohol dehydrogenase               Aans. (A)

9. When the pollen tube enters the ovule through the micropyle is called is

(A) endogamy  (B) porogamy   (C) chalazogamy

(D) misogamy                                                              Ans. (B)

10. Which one is the modified stem   (A) potato  (B) corn

(C) spine of cactus   (D)Raddish                                   Ans. (A)

11. Largest amount of phosphate bond energy is produced in the process of respiration during

(A)Glycolysis  (B)Krebs cycle  (C) Fermentation

(D)Anaerobic respiration                                           Ans . (B)

12. Mendel crossed pure breed red flowered plants with pure breed white flowered plants and obtained all red flowered offspring (F1 generation). The gene for red flowers must have

been

(A) Assorted   (B) Sex linked  (C) Dominant

(D)Carried on the same chromosome as the gene for white flowers

                                                                            Ans: C

13. The parasite causing malaria in man was first discovered by

(A)Schwann  (B) Ronald Ross  (C) Landmarck (D)Laveran

                                                                     Ans : (D)

14. Haemoglobin remains dissolved in the plasma of

(A)Cockroach  (B) Lizards  (C) Porcupine (D)Earthworm

                                                                       Ans: (D)

15. The layers, from which gametes are formed, is

(A)Columnar epithelium (B)Germinal epithelium

(C)Glandular epithelium  (D)Follicular epithelium

                                                                         Ans : (B)

16. The following glands secrete saliva except

(A)Lachrymal gland (B) Parotid gland

(C) Submaxillary gland  (D)Sublingual gland    Ans. (A)

17. Peritoneum in vertebrates is a membrane which invests

(A)Heart  (B) Blood platelets  (C)Alimentary canal and other visceral organ      (D)Lungs                                                            Ans : (C)

18. The arterial pulse is due to

(A)Passage of ejected blood

(B)Quality of blood flowing in arteries

(C) The intermittent discharge of blood into the aorta

(D)The intermittent discharge of blood into the aorta and to the elasticity of the arteries.                                                            Ans : (D)

19. The main function of the white blood corpuseles in the body is

(A)To protect the body against diseases

(B) To carry oxygen to each parts of body

(C) To carry food to each parts of body

(D)To help in the formation of clot.               Ans: (A)

20.‘Grasserie’ disease of silkworm is caused by

(A)Bacteria  (B) Fungus  (C) Protozoa (D)Virus     Ans: (D)

21. Regulation of body temperature in a homeotherm, when the environmental temperature is high, would involve.

(A)Dilatation of the blood vessels of the skin

(B)Constriction of the blood vessels of the skin

(C)Decreased flow of blood without any change in blood vessels

(D) No change in the above blood vessels        Ans : (A)

22. When man inhales air containing normal concentration of oxygen as well as carbon monoxide, he suffers from suffocation, because

(A)Carbon monoxide affects the diaphragm and intercostals muscles

(B)Carbon monoxide affects the nerves of the lungs

(C)Carbon monoxide reacts with oxygen which is thus removed from the air entering the  lungs

(D)Haemoglobin combines with carbon monoxide instead of oxygen and the product cannot dissociate.                Ans : (D)

Category II: Questions carrying two marks each (questions 23 to 34)

23.The phylum arthropoda is characterised by the presence of

(A) External segmentation, a pair of chalicerae and pedipalpi

(B)Exoskeletal scales, metamerism and a pair of antennae

(C)Chitinous exoskeleton, external segmentation and paired jointed appendages    (D) Hairs, external segmentation and metamerism

                                                                                     Ans : (C)

24. A student wants to know whether the oil used to kill mosquito larvae acts as a poison or whether it cuts off the oxygen supply to the larvae. Which of the following experiments would best answer his questions.

(A)Place larvae is an aquarium that contains nothing but oil.

(B)Place larvae in several aquariums that contain varying amounts of oil and water.

(C)Place larvae in an aquarium in which an obstruction prevents oil from completely covering the water.

(D) Place larvae in two aquariums, one without oil and the other with oil covering the water                                                          Ans : (D)

25.Which of the following groups of characters of a whale justifies its inclusion in class Mammalian?

(A)It possesses heavy skin and mammary glands and produces young ones

(B)It possesses gills and fins and produces young ones

(C)It possesses vertebral column, lungs and 4-chambered heart

(D) It possesses lungs, 4-chambered heart and kidneys

                                                                      Ans : (A)

26. Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are present in ‘P’ organ, secrete ‘Q’ hormone and

decrease blood ‘R’ level. Choose the correct P, Q and R.

(A)P=Pancreas, Q= Insulin, R= Glucose

(B) P=Pancreas, Q= Glucagon, R= Glucose

(C) P=Pituitary, Q=Insulin, R= Cholesterol

(D)P=Testis, Q= Androgen, R=Albumin

                                                                           Ans: (A)

27. Which one of the following is the correct match of a vitamin about its nature and

deficiency disease?

(A)Vitamin D——Water soluble—–Pellagra

(B)Vitamin A——Fat soluble———Night blindness

(C)Vitamin C——Fat soluble———Scurvy

(D)Vitamin K——Water Soluble——Beriberi

                                                               Ans: (B)

28. If the stroke volume of a person is 80 ml and its heart rate is 70 beat per minute what will  be the minute volume?

(A)560 ml (B) 5.6 ml (C) 5600 ml (D) 5600 liter    Ans: (C)

29.Match Column I with column II and choose the correct answer.

I II

1. Sphigmomanometer (i)Measurement of hemoglobin

2. Hemocytometer (ii)Determination of number of RBC and WBC in

blood

3. Hemoglobinometer (iii)Measurement of blood pressure

4. Electrocardiagraph (iv)Recording electrical impulse generated in cardiac  muscle

(A) 1(iii), 2(ii), 3(i), 4(iv)       (B) 1(i), 2 (ii), 3 (iii), 4 (iv)

(C) 1 (iv), 2 (ii), 3(i), 4 (iii)     (D) 1 (iii), 2 (i), 3 (ii), 4 (iv)

                                                                       Ans: (A)

30. Mention the parasite and the vector for sleeping sickness disease.

(A) Leishmania donovani and sand fly

(B) Trypanosoma gambianse and tsetse fly

(C)Plasmodium vivax and anopheles mosquito

(D)Wuchereria bancrofti and culex mosquito

                                                              Ans: (B)

31. Edible plant part (Column-I) is enriched with certain biomolecule (Column-II), which is required for human nutrition and health. Select the CORRECT answer after matching Column-I and Column-II.

Column-I Column-II P. Sesame (till) seed i. Protein

Q. Rice grain ii. Vitamin C  R. Lentil seed iii. Starch

S. Orange fruit iv. Neutral lipid

A) P- i, Q- ii, R- iii, S- iv    B) P- ii, Q- iii, R- iv, S- i

C) P- iv, Q- iii, R- i, S- ii    D) P- iv, Q- i, R- iii, S- ii

                                                                     Ans: ( C)

32. The meristematic tissues that arise within cortex, and between xylem and pholem are  called

(A) Pith meristem and vascular cambium, respectively

(B) Cortex meristem and vascular cambium, respectively

(C ) Cork cambium and vascular cambium, respectively

(D)Cortex meristem and cork cambium, respectively

                                                                        Ans: (C)

33. Dormancy in apical buds and seeds is initiated by hormone ‘X ‘and broken by hormone

‘Y’. Identify the correct match of ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

A) X = Indole acetic acid, Y = Gibberellic acid

B) X = Abscisic acid, Y = Cytokinin

C) X = Abscisic acid, Y = Gibberellic acid

D) X = Ethylene, Y = Abscisic acid

                                                                Ans: (C)

34. Which of the following statements are correct for the Xth Cranial nerve?

(i) It is mixed nerve and is most widely distributed

(ii) The motor fibre of this nerve is mostly parasympathetic type

(iii) Motor fibres of this nerve supply to the muscles and glands of various thoracic and abdominal viscera.

(iv) Its motor part supplies the ocular muscles and controls the movement of eye.

(v) Its sensory fibres carry sensations of touch, pressure, temperature and pain from mouth

cavity, nasal cavity, cornea and iris of the eye.

(vi) The nerve is responsible for the movement of alimentary canal.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)

(D) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

                                                                        Ans (C)

Category III: Question having more than one correct answer (each question carries two marks) (questions 35 to 41 )

 

35. Which of these acids may be categorized under phytohormes?

A) Gibberellic acid  B) Butyric acid C) Abscisic acid D) Lactic acid

                                                                    Ans: (A) and (C)

36. Which of the following cell types are involved in CAM cycle?

A) Mesophyll cell   B) Idioblast cell C) Bundle sheath cell

D) Laticifer cell  Ans :                                 (A) and (C)

37. Which among the following are true for the function of glucagon?

(A) Increase blood glucose level (B) Stimulates glycogenolysis and neoglucogenesis (C) Increase the utilization of glucose

(D) Increase the permeability of glucose in various organs

                                                              Ans : (A), (B)

38. Which of the followings are true for B lymphocytes?

(A)Undergoes maturation in the bone marrow

(B) Is responsible for humoral immunity

(C) Is converted to plasma cells for antibody secretion

(D) Is responsible for cell mediated immunity

                                                        Ans: (A), (B) and (C)

39.Which of the following hormones are secreted from adrenal cortex?

(A)Mineralocorticoids (B)Glucocorticoids (C)Adrenaline (D)Sex corticoids                                                    Ans: (A), (B) and (D).

40. Enzymes involved in bacterial DNA replication are

(A)DNA Polymerase (B)Helicase (C)Deoxyribonuclease (D)Esterase

                                                                  Ans: (A) and (B)

41. Bacterial RNA synthesis requires

(A)DNA template  (B) RNA polymerase  (C) Primer  (D) rNTPs

                                                                   Ans: (A), (B) and (D)

It is comparatively easier to get a chance in Medical qualifying the WBJEE (Med) entrance than All India PMT Entrance for Domicile of West Bengal. Because, in both entrances, medical seats are equal approx. 2500 each. In AIPMT entrance students appear about 4,00,000 (four lakh), but in WBJEE (Med) appeared students only about 45,000 (forty five thousand). So domicile of West Bengal students, first target will be WBJEE (Medical). For Engg. stream it is also same.

Dr. A. K. Maty

It is not the correct decision to change the medium from Bengali to English after Madhyamik Examination who will appear the Med/Eng Entrances in future. Bengali medium students can also appear All India Med/Engg Entrances easily knowing more or less 300 to 400 terms in each subject in English version side by side, as all the entrances are held in MCQ pattern.

Dr. A. K. Maty

 

Status of colleges with regard to recognition U/S 11(2) of the IMC Act, 1956 as on 24/03/2014.

West Bengal ESIC Medical College, Joka Kolkata

2nd Batch 100 Seats  Executive Committee  decision dated 14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the  permission for the academic year 2014-2015” has been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

West Bengal IQ-City Medical College, Burdwan, West Bengal

2nd 150 Yes EC decision dt. 23/01/2014 “Not to renew the permission for the academic year 2014-15has been communicated to the Central Govt. vide Council’s letter dt. 28/1/2014

West Bengal Murshidabad Medical College & Hospitals, Murshidabad

 3rd year  100 Seats Executive Committee decision dated 14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the permission for the academic year 2014-2015” has been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

West Bengal Malda Medical College & Hospital, Malda

 4th Batch 100 Seats Executive Committee decision dated 14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the permission for the academic year 2014-2015” has been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

 West Bengal College of Medicine and Sagore Dutta Hospital, Kolkata

 4th Batch 100 Seats  Executive Committee decision dated  14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the permission for the academic year 2014-2015” has Been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

  Last posted dt on 25-03-2014,

1.Publication of Downloadable Admit Card for WB JEE : available from – 02-04-2014

2. percentage back in JEE merit list.(Times of India 23-03-2014 )

3. In WBJEE 2012 (Medical) 1st rank holder was scored 187 out of full marks 200 and last candidate admitted in MBBS course (for Gen Category) was scored 121 . Further details, go through Paper Cutting (Bengali – Bartaman 02-02-2014) page.

CM Letter-11-02-14, Regarding the minimum qualifying marks for Under-Graduate and also in Post-Graduate medical Medical entrance examination which is 50% for General category and 40% for SC and ST Category according to Medical Council of India rule, qualifying marks on percentile basis is against MCI Regulations.

Status of colleges with regard to recognition U/S 11(2) of the IMC Act, 1956 as on 24/03/2014.

West Bengal ESIC Medical College, Joka Kolkata

2nd Batch 100 Executive Committee  decision dated

14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the  permission for

the academic year 2014-2015” has been

communicated to the Central Government vide

Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

West Bengal IQ-City Medical College, Burdwan, West Bengal

2nd 150 Yes EC decision dt. 23/01/2014 “Not to renew the

permission for the academic year 2014-15has been communicated to the Central Govt. vide Council’s letter dt. 28/1/2014

West Bengal Murshidabad Medical College & Hospitals, Murshidabad

 3rd year  100 Seats Executive Committee decision dated

14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the permission for the academic year 2014-2015” has been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

West Bengal Malda Medical College & Hospital, Malda

 4th Batch 100 Seats Executive Committee

decision dated 14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the permission for

the academic year 2014-2015” has been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

West Bengal College of Medicine and Sagore Dutta Hospital, Kolkata

 4th Batch 100 Seats  Executive Committee decision dated  14/03/2104 “ Not to renew the permission for the academic year 2014-2015” has Been communicated to the Central Government vide Council’s letter dated 19/03/2014

To

Ms. Mamata Banerjee,

Hon’ble Chief Minister

Govt. of West Bengal

E-mail : cm-wb@nic.in

Sub :            Regarding the minimum qualifying marks for Under-Graduate and also in Post-Graduate medical Medical entrance examination which is 50% for General category and 40% for SC and ST Category according to Medical Council of India rule, qualifying marks on percentile basis is against MCI Regulations.

Respected madam,

With due respect and humble submission I like to draw your kind attention regarding following matter :

This is to intimate you that the minimum qualifying marks for Medical entrance examination is 50% for General category and 40% for SC and ST Category according to Medical Council of India (MCI) rule. For holding only one common entrance test National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) for Graduate and also in Post-Graduate medical courses, MCI published Notification No. MCI-31(1)/2010-MED/49068 described as “Regulations on Graduate Medical Education (Amendment) 2010, (Part II)” has been published by the Medical Council of India to amend the “Regulations on Graduate Medical Education, 1997”. Notification No.MCI.18(1)/2010-MED/49070 described as “Post-graduate Medical Education (Amendment) Regulation, 2010 (Part II)” has been issued by the said Council to amend the “Post Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 2000”. Both the Regulations came into force simultaneously on their publication in the Official Gazette.

Afterwards MCI published a further notification, modifying the earlier one, on dated 27th December, 2012 where is was said that in order to be eligible for admission to any postgraduate and undergraduate courses in a particular academic year, it shall be necessary for a candidate to obtain minimum of marks at 50th percentile in ‘National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test’ for postgraduate and undergraduate courses held for the said academic year. However SC, ST and OBC category must have the minimum 40th percentile and for PH category 45th percentile.

On 18th July the Hon’ble SC of India has delivered the final verdict on NEET case of TC (C) No. 98/2012 and other related 114 cases. In 203 pages order, the SC quashed the applicability of NEET. The SC ordered that NEET is unconstitutional, so there is no further validity of percentil eminimum qualifying marks that was proposed for NEET only.

In 2014, All India postgraduate medical entrance was held and also result published on percentage basis of pass mark. Also All India undergraduate medical entrance test (All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental test) 2014 conducted by CBSE Board, there minimum qualifying marks set on percentage basis as per MCI rule & Regulations.

In the year 2014, West Bengal University of Health Sciences has held the post-graduation entrance examination for state quota seats for the session 2014-15 where they have postulated the percentile rule – Candidates (General and Physically Challenged) appearing for Post Graduate Degree/Diploma course will had to secure a minimum of 50 percentile in the written test to qualify for empanelment in merit list, candidate belonging to OBC has to secure a minimum of 45 percentile and candidate belonging to SC/ST has to secure 40 percentile in the written test to qualify for empanelment in merit list. As per, the university also published the result of said examination on percentile basis. This is against MCI rule of the qualifying marks.

In recent past, the Division Bench of Calcutta High Court had passed an order to expel 90 post-graduate trainee due to not admitting in schedule time for admission and later Hon’ble Supreme of India upheld the order of division bench. As a result those students lost their PG seats, society sufferred from getting experienced doctors and moreover Govt. lost a huge amount of money due to casual decisions of Health University & Govt. officials.

This year also Health University again has taken the wrong decision and published the result of post graduate entrance on percentile basis. Every College/University/Board must have to obey the MCI rule of minimum pass mark. Not obeying MCI rules & regulations, all the PG students of the session may be expelled from the course, then society will suffer a lot.

The West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Board also announced the pass mark for undergraduate medical entrance examination as percentile instead of percentage rule of MCI. As the matter was focussed in a popular bengali news paper, the WBJEE Board had called an urgent meeting on the issue and the matter is send to the law section for opinion.

It is very difficult to pass/qualify more than 2500 students for undergraduate (MBBS/BDS) course because of wrong number distribution of subjects of medical entrance (100 marks for Biology where 75 marks each of Physics and Chemistry that is total 150 marks in Physics & Chemistry together), 1/3 negative marking, pattern & standard of questions.

In 2013-14 session to fill about 2400 state quota seats in medical, state rank of NEET 2013 proceeds upto 3617. In comming session further seats may be increased by your hard & sole and cordial effort and to fill all seats the rank may proceed even upto 5000. Then a merit list of at least 6000 students is to be published in coming session. In last few years ST candidates are not qualifying as per the number of their reserved seats. In tribal belt there is paucity of doctors. Tribal doctors feel comfort to work in tribal belt.

In 2012-13 session 63 seats remain vaccant due to paucity of qualifying students, where minimum cost of a medical seat is 50-60 lakh.

West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Board is not a statutory body. Hon’ble higher education minister Mr. Bratya Basu is trying seriously to make it as a statutory body. It is utmost necessary to make the statute of the Board and it is expected the fittest persons will hold the responsible posts.

Madam, you remain busy on sevaral important matters. My appeal before you that you will take a right decission to save the interests of students, guardians & society.

Thanking you,

With best regards ,

Yours sincerely,

DR. A. K Maity, Director                                        Dated-11/02/2014

Dr. Maity Educational and Medical

Research Institute Pvt. Ltd 515/1 Lake Gardens , Kolkata-700045,

Ph. No. 9143159986 /9830173422 E.mail : drmaity_rainbow@rediffmail.com

Copy to – 1) Mr. Bratya Basu , Hon’ble Higher Education Minister Govt. of WB

 

WBJEE (Med & Engg.) – 2014             23-01 -2013

1. Prospectus of JEM 2014 available from Designatedbranches of Allahabad Bank by Rs. 30/- up to 25-01-2014

2.   On-line Application and prospectus  available  up to 25-01-2014( www.wbjeeb.in)

3. WBJEE (Medical & Engg.) – 2014 will be held on 19-04-2014 and 20-04-2014

4.  Question pattern (Bio – Math – Phy- Che)

Category I (of 1 mark each, 1 answer option correct)

Category II  (of 2 marks each, 1 answer option correct)

Category III  (of 2 marks each, more than 1 correct answer)

5.   1/3 Negative marking

6. Candidates eligible for consideration to TFW seats for Engg

    7.     WBJEE (Medical & Engg.) – 2014 date of exam. may be change.

Online applications are invited for All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Test, 2014 to be conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education, From 01/12/2013 to 31/12/2013 website  -  www.aipmt.nic.in

U.P. Unaided Medical Colleges Welfare Association (UPUMCWA) is conducting UPCMET-2014 for admission in M.B.B.S. First year 2014-15        website www.upumcwa.org

 

All India Pre Medical Entrance Test      28-11-2013

AIPMT is back. Central Board of Secondary Examination (CBSE) is going to conduct AIPMT for the medical aspirants to get admissions into MBBS/Dental Courses in the government colleges and hospitals.

Likewise every year CBSE has decided to conduct the exam from 2014 which is scheduled on 4th May,  2014.In the previous year CBSE took the exam for the medical students in a combined set named as NEET-UG. But soon Supreme Court intervened in the matter and directed the CBSE to conduct AIPMT 2014 exam in the similar way as it conducted medical entrance tests in the previous years. >> see post CBSE decides to conduct AIPMT on May 4 for 2014-15 session

1. AIPMT to replace NEET – The All-India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Test (AIPMT) is finally replacing the National Eligibility Entrance Test for Undergraduate Courses (NEET-UG 2014).

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) will hold the AIPMT for students aspiring for Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery/Bachelor of Dental Surgery (MBBS/BDS) courses for the academic session of 2014-2015 on Sunday, May 4, 2014, as per an announcement made by CBSE.

2. CBSE to conduct AIPMT for 15 percent seats –All India Pre-medical and Pre- Dental Exam (AIPMT) conducted by CBSE lets you compete for 15% seats in all medical colleges in the country except Andra Pradesh.

So in effect you complete for just over 2100 seats in about 120 colleges. But anyone getting ranks within 3000 could have a fair chance of gaining admission, since toppers in AIPMT also would top in other medical colleges.

3. AIPMT 2014 on May 4, 2014-CBSE decides to conduct AIPMT on May 4 for 2014 session. Board has decided to conduct the exam all over India except in the States of Andhra Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir and also for admission to Medical/Dental Colleges voluntarily participating in the test on 04th May, 2014.

4. AIPMT 2014 Syllabus same as NEET-With the Government’s decision to scrap NEET, AIPMT is back. However, students should not be bothered about preparation, as the syllabus and pattern for All India Pre Medical Test 2014 (AIPMT) is a replica of NEET 2013.

Preparation strategies for AIPMT 2014 should be the same as NEET as the syllabus will be the same as that of NEET.

5. Do not confuse AIPMT with its previous version, say experts-Also Read AIPMT 2014 more like NEET and not previous AIPMTs. The difference between NEET and AIPMT 2014 is that AIPMT will be conducted only for the 15% national quota in government medical/dental colleges all over India. “The ministry of health and family welfare has given the go-ahead for AIPMT 2014.Students should not confuse AIPMT with its previous version. AIPMT 2014 will be similar to NEET, and won’t affect students preparing for the common medical entrance tests.

The format will also be the same and will be a pen and paper test comprising MCQ’s.

6. NEET and AIPMT more similar than different – The AIPMT syllabus will be the same as NEET.

Like NEET, AIPMT too will have a single paper as against the earlier two papers.

There will be 180 objective type questions from physics, chemistry, botany and zoology (45 questions from each subject).There is no official clarity as yet regarding negative marking in AIPMT-2014. Since there is a similarity in the pattern of both the tests.

MBBS Admission in MP for 2014 will be through CBSE         AIPMT

 November 26th, 2013

The Directorate of Medical Education (DME) has stated that it will be assessing the feasibility of conducting MBBS and BDS exams in Madhya Pradesh through CBSE next year.

MBBS Admission in MP for 2014 will be through CBSE AIPMT. Director of Medical Education in the state, Dr. Nirbhay Shrivastava also confirmed that CBSE have waved the green flag at the proposal. He, however, clarified that the new arrangement will be on for next year only.

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“There will be a proper assessment to check the advantages of conducting exam through CBSE before making it a regular in the future,” said Dr Shrivastava, Times of India reports.

The new development has come into being following a number of different scams deteriorated the standards of medical education in the state. Subsequently, there was a strong demand from various corners to have the medical exams in the state conducted through an agency out of the state.

Prior to this new decision by the DME, the responsibility of conducting medical exams in the state was with the Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board (MPPEB). However, it was relieved of duty following a section of its high ranking official, including former exam controller Pankaj Trivedi were arrested by investigating agencies for their alleged involvement in scams.

“Besides MP, one more state had contacted us to conduct medical exam in their respective states. I can only say this much at this stage,” public relations officer of CBSE, Rama Sharma, said.

She added, “I will be in a position to tell you the modalities of the exam in next couple of days.”

U.P. Combined Medical Entrance Test 2014 for MBBS Admissions in Uttar pradesh

U.P. Unaided Medical Colleges Welfare Association (UPUMCWA) is conducting UPCMET-2014 for admission in M.B.B.S. First year 2014-15

Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification:

Candidates must have passed 10+2 level examination of UP Board / ISC / CBSE or its equivalent from any recognised Board / University with English as a subject; securing minimum 50% (40% in case of SC/ST/OBC) marks on average in Physics, Chemistry & Biology (including practical examination) taken together.

Candidates appearing in 10+2 examination of 2014 are also eligible to appear in entrance test but at the time of counseling they have to produce the passing marksheet of 10+2 examination, failing which no allotment of seats will be made.

Age Limit:  To appear in the Entrance Examination candidate should have completed 17 years as on 31st December, 2014.

Nationality:   Admission is open to all citizen of India.

Admission Procedure:  Admission will be done as per the merit list prepared in the manner mentioned in this brochure on the basis of marks secured in the above UPCMET-2014.

Reservation:  Reservation shall be applicable as notified by the Govt. and enforced at the time of Counselling. For this purpose OBC Caste Category shall be determined on the basis of list published by UP Govt.

How to Apply:

Candidates are required to download application form from the UPCMET official website. Application form can also be obtained through post or in person from the below mentioned address.

Fill in all the mandatory details and send the print out of the application form along with a DD of Rs 1000/- in favour of ‘UPUMCWA’ payable at Bareilly to the following address:

The Coordinator, UPCMET 2014, 1st Floor, Anand Ashram Complex, Rampur Garden, Bareilly

Send the copies of necessary documents along with the filled in application form through registered post/speed post only. Application forms sent through courier or in person shall not be entertained.

Keep a copy of printed application form till the completion of admission process.

Candidates will be provided with the facility to download the admit card once the application is processed after careful scrutiny.

UPCMET 2014 Admit Card

Admit card for UPCMET 2014 will be sent to candidates through post at the address mentioned in the application form.

If the candidate does not receive the admit card one week before the date of examination, then the candidate is required to visit the official website to access his/her Center and Roll Number by entering his/her application number. The candidate must also contact +91-9897600270 or Coordinator’s Mobile No. +91-9412761020

Duplicate admit card can be obtained from the examination center opted by the candidate one day before the examination date but not on the date of examination.

UPCMET 2014 Exam Pattern

There will be 2 papers as under: Paper I: Physical and Biological Sciences

Paper II: General English (Qualifying Paper) There will be 200 questions in Paper I and 50 questions in Paper II. 0.25 marks will be deducted for negative answers.

Questions with multiple answers will treated as incorrect answer.

The cut off percentage for UPCMET 2014 is 50 % (40% for SC/ST category

Important Instruction :   Application Forms of UPCMET – 2014 are available in following modes:

Mode–I    Information Brochure and OMR Application Form can be obtained in person from the cash counters of the participating member colleges on cash payment of Rs. 1000 & sent through Speed Post to the “Coordinator – UPCMET 2014, First Floor, Anand Ashram Complex, Rampur Garden, Bareilly – 243 001”.

Mode-II      Downloaded from the website www.upumcwa.org and after printing the same on A-4 sheet, such applications are to be completely filled and sent along with the Demand Draft of Rs. 1000/= in favor of “UPUMCWA” payable at “Bareilly (U.P.)” to the “Coordinator – UPCMET 2014, First Floor, Anand Ashram Complex, Rampur Garden, Bareilly – 243 001”.

Mode-III    Completely filled Online through the link provided on the website www.upumcwa.org (along with uploading of the signature, recent color passport size photograph, and Left hand thumb impression). In case of such applications, the examination fee of Rs. 1000/- can be paid in the following two modes:

The fee can be deposited into the Account of UPUMCWA (A/c No. 52242011020520) at the branches of Oriental Bank of Commerce and the Challan No. is mandatory to be filled at the designated place while filling the form online.

Thereafter, the Confirmation Page can be generated and the print of the same is to be sent through Speed Post to the “Coordinator – UPCMET 2014, First Floor, Anand Ashram Complex, Rampur Garden, Bareilly – 243 001”.

Please attach the photo copy of the Challan issued by the Bank.

A Demand Draft of Rs. 1000/= in favor of “UPUMCWA” payable at “Bareilly (U.P.)” is to be attached with the Confirmation Page after completely filling the form online the No. of the Demand Draft must be filled at the designated place while filling the form online. Thereafter, the Confirmation Page can be generated and the print of the same is to be sent through Speed Post to the “Coordinator – UPCMET 2014, First Floor, Anand Ashram Complex, Rampur Garden, Bareilly – 243 001”.

Note:  In case the either of the Recent Colored Passport Size Photograph, Left Hand Thumb Impression, or Signatures are not duly uploaded, please put the same on the Confirmation Page before sending the same.

In case of any problem regarding downloading / filling / submission of the application form, please feel free to share the same over email at info@upumcwa.org.  If the problems are not solved within 48 hours, one may contact the Coordinator – UPCMET 2014 at mobile no. 9412761020.

Mode -IV     Information Brochure & OMR Application from can also be purchased from the authorised vendors*.    List Available on Website: www.upumcwa.org

Candidates are advised to go through all instructions and also check list as printed on the side corner of the envelope containing application form before finally submitting the application form.

Application Form should be filled with utmost care avoiding all kind of overwriting or cuttings. Do not staple pin, wrinkle, scribble, tear, and wet or damage the form in any way.

Write your Application Form No. on the envelop along with your address and then put the duly filled in application form & send it by registered post/speed post. Application Forms sent through courier or submitted in person shall in no case be entertained.

The application form complete in all respect should reach to the Co-ordinator UPCMET-2014 latest by 30th April, 2014.

UPUMCWA will not be responsible for any delay in receiving of completed application form along with all enclosures either on the part of post office or for any other reason.

The application form after scrutiny shall be processed and applicant will receive his/her admit card along with roll no. which will allow one to appear in the entrance test.

Appropriate information regarding centres shall be mentioned on the admit card.

If any document/declaration submitted by the candidate is found to be false at any stage his/her candidature will be cancelled and he/she may be liable for prosecutions under law. In case of any legal dispute the jurisdiction will be limited to Bareilly Courts only.

The candidates are also instructed to note the Application Form No. and to keep photocopy of submitted application form along with proof of having submitted the application form for any future reference.

Incomplete Application Forms will be rejected.

 

 

 

Joint entrance examination set to be overhauled

TNN | Oct 29, 2013, 06.14 AM IST

KOLKATA: Aspiring engineers and doctors should not fret if they do not have chemistry at plus II level.

If things go according to plan, they can prepare for chemistry and take the joint entrance examination (JEE). The suggestion came from the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), the purpose being to include even those students who have computer science, mechanics or biotechnology other than chemistry at the plus II level.

“It is mandatory to score 45% average in physics, chemistry and biology for medical students and the same in physics, chemistry and mathematics to get a seat in engineering. Students getting anything below this won’t get an admission in engineering and medical colleges even if they are among the first 20 in the WBJEE,” a source said.

If the new plan becomes a reality, medical aspirants who have studied biology, physics and any other allied subject of chemistry in plus II and secured 45% average, can bag a seat in medical colleges. In case of engineering, students will have to secure a minimum of 45% in physics, mathematics and any allied subject of chemistry.

 

West Bengal Joint Entrance Board is mulling the AICTE suggestion as the medical entrance test will be held by the board instead at the all-India level from the coming session.

 

The JEE Board is also considering changes in the examination schedule. At the moment the examination is held on the same day which may be divided over two days from next year.

 

“After biology was kept out from JEE 2013, we had increased the weightage of both physics and chemistry question papers from 50 marks each paper to 75 marks question paper. Till 2012, both physics and chemistry were combined into one paper of 100 marks. But after the two subjects were separated, it may not be re-combined into one again. The time allocated for both physics and chemistry could be one-and-a-half hours for each subject. Mathematics is a 100 marks question paper and has to be completed within two hours. If biology test is held on the same day, we will have to allocate 100 marks to the subject and two more hours to the exam. Altogether a candidate will have to spend 10 hours for JEE which is impossible. Hence, JEE from 2014 may be taken on two different days. At the moment reducing weightage of Physics and Chemistry from 75 marks to 50 marks is unlikely,” said a source in the higher education department.

 

Moreover, several students appear for both medical and engineering joint entrance examinations. “Considering their plight, we may have the exams in two different days. On the first day, physics, chemistry and mathematics may be held while biology may be taken on the following day. Till 2012, Biology (100), Mathematics (100) and Physics, Chemistry (100) combined were held on the same day. For each paper two hours were allocated and one hour was resting time in between each subject paper,” a JEE official said.

 

Large number of vacant seats in 2013 even after conducting four rounds of counselling has left the JEE administrators worried. Another major concern is the falling standard of the JEE aspirants. The Board may thus bring about changes in the question pattern.

 

The JEE Board now, sets three categories of questions. The first is one mark MCQ (multiple choice question), second is two marks MCQ with single correct answer) while the third is 2 marks MCQ with multiple correct answers.

 

The JEE board may increase the number of questions in the third category by decreasing questions from the other two categories. There is also a possibility of decreasing the total number of questions and increasing the difficulty level of all the questions.

 

The academic sub-committee meeting which is scheduled to be held on November 1 will also discuss the possibility of a syllabus revamp in JEE 2014.

“Till now, the JEE syllabus is based on West Bengal Higher Secondary syllabus. But many students from other boards like ICSE and CBSE also take the examination. Hence, we may urge the committee to combine the syllabus of all the three boards and prepare questions accordingly,” a source said.

EE-Main exams set for April 6

 Nov 7, 2013, 06.03 AM IST

 

PUNE: The all-India joint entrance examination (JEE-Main) for admissions to first-year engineering courses for the academic year 2014-2015 will be held on April 6, next year.

 

The entrance test includes those for undergraduate engineering programmes in the National Institutes of Technology, Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and other centrally-funded technical institutions.

 

The state directorate of technical education (DTE), which is the competent authority to grant admissions in engineering colleges in the state, had announced on November 2 that the JEE main paper score and marks secured in the higher secondary certificate (HSC, class XII) examinations will be jointly considered for the merit list for admissions.

 

After scrapping the Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MH-CET) earlier this year, the state will join the JEE for admission purpose for the first time.

 

M M Morve, under secretary, DTE said, “Both JEE scores and marks secured in the HSC exams will get 50% weightage while preparing the merit list for admissions. Also, normalized percentile system will be used to bring all the three boards-ISC, CBSE and state board- at par while preparing the merit list.”

 

The JEE will be conducted in two parts – Main (Paper I) and Advanced (Paper II). For students who wish to secure admissions into engineering colleges within the state, the marks obtained in the main paper will be considered. However, if the student qualifies for the advanced paper, the marks of the second examination will also be considered, a notification issued by DTE said.

 

While considering standard XII marks, the directorate will take into account marks secured in physics, chemistry and mathematics only. According to the notification, students must have a minimum score of 50% in all three subjects.

 

The JEE-Main exam will screen the top 1.5 lakh students who can appear for the JEE-Advanced, scheduled on May 25, 2014, for admissions to the IITs

Propose marks distribution  WBJEE – 2014

NOT FINAL    08-11-2013

Physics full marks – 75 (1h – 30min or 90 min) Exam – Sunday ,20-04-2014

Chemistry full marks – 75(1h – 30min or 90 min) Exam – Sunday ,20-04-2014

Math full marks – 100 (2 h or 120 min) Exam – Sunday ,20-04-2014

Bio full marks – 100 (2 h or120 min) Exam – Saturday , 19-04-2014

  BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE and Math (100 MARKS)

60 MCQs x 1   Mark Each (One Answer Option Correct)

15  MCQs x 2   Marks Each (One Answer Option Correct)

5 MCQs x 2 Marks Each (More than one Answer Options Correct)

PHYSICS (75 MARKS) AND CHEMISTRY (75 MARKS)

45 MCQs x 1    Mark Each (One Answer Option Correct)

10  MCQs x2    Marks Each (One Answer Option Correct)

5 MCQs x 2 Marks Each (More than one Answer Options Correct)

EE 2014: Engineering students in Odisha to take JEE Mains

November 05, 2013

The Odisha government has decided to scrap its state-level entrance examination for admissions into engineering colleges and adopt a national-level test.

The state-level examination called Odisha Joint Entrance Examination (OJEE) won’t be used to grant admissions into technical institutions in the state from the next academic year onwards.

The government has instead decided to go with the national-level JEE (Main)-2014 for admissions into its colleges.

This is seen as a move to unburden the students who otherwise have to undertake multiple entrance exams to get in to a college of their choice. Adhering to different syllabus, patterns of the different exams always leads to confusion among the students.

Not only would students be able to get admissions into colleges in the state using the marks in the national-level JEE, admissions into colleges such as NITs, IIITs and other institutions under the central government and other participating states will also be on the basis of the scores in this examination.

This move will go a long away in assuaging some of their concerns.

“As decided earlier, there will be no state-level JEE this year. Admission to engineering colleges will be on the basis of JEE (Main) conducted by Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). We have asked the CBSE to allot examination centres in all districts for the convenience of aspirants,” secretary, technical education, Chandra Sekhar Kumar said.

The offline examination is scheduled on April 6, online mode of the test would be held on April 9, 11, 12 and 19.

Medical and engineering entrance exams to be held together

Pradip Chatterjee
pchatterjee@thestatesman.net
Kolkata, 30 October

The Joint Entrance Exam (JEE) Board will hold state level medical entrance examination along with the engineering exam on 20 April next year.
The decision was taken after the Chief Minister gave her nod. The health department had earlier written a letter to Miss Mamata Banerjee, requesting her approval.
Senior officials of JEE board will convene a high level meeting on 1 November to expedite the process of conducting the examination. The process has already been delayed due to the failure of the health department in arriving at a decision following the controversy over a national level entrance examination.
State level medical entrance examination for 2013-14 was not conducted following the Medical Council of India’s decision to introduce the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET). However, the Supreme Court later declared the NEET unconstitutional after several private institutions appealed against it.
Around seventy-thousand candidates can now breathe a sigh of relief following the state government’s decision to conduct its own examination.
Senior officials of the health department said that JEE will be asked to conduct the medical entrance examination along with the engineering entrance exam on 20 April.
Altogether, around 1.5 lakh candidates will sit for the two examinations for 2014-15.
Candidates appearing for the entrance next year will have to follow the state syllabus.
The JEE needs to strengthen its infrastructure as it will be conducting examination for 1.5 lakh candidates for the first time. In the previous years, JEE used to conduct examinations for around 1.1 lakh candidates. The number candidates may increase further as many who had failed to clear NEET last year will appear the examination.

Maharashtra to conduct CET for MBBS, BDS courses admissions in 2014

October 24, 2013

 Directorate of Medical Education & Research (DMER), Mumbai, has decided to conduct Common Entrance Test (CET) for the year 2014 for admission to MBBS, BDS courses. “The decision was made by the state taking into consideration the effort put in by students in preparing for NEET,” said an official from the DMER. It is clear that, students aspiring for Medical courses in Maharashtra have to appear for state CET to seek MBBS, BDS seats.

Students aspiring for Medical entrance exam have to study the class 11 and 12 syllabus of Physics, Chemistry and Biology. Recently, DTE has also announced to hold MT CET for Engineering courses admissions.

 

Meanwhile, the state health Education ministry also announced that the candidates appearing in MH CET, will have an option to write Exam in English and Marathi. The state CET, from this year on, will carry 720 marks (180 questions carrying four marks each).

HC relook scrapping of NEET

24-10-2013

The Supreme Court on Thursday agreed to have a relook at its judgment that quashed the single-window admission process, National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET), for medical courses.

A three-judge bench headed by justice HL Dattu and comprising justices AR Dave and Vikramajit Sen said it would grant an open hearing to the Centre and Medical Council of India’s (MCI) petition seeking a review of its July 18 verdict that declared NEET violated the rights of private institutions.

The bench, headed by Chief Justice of India Altamas Kabir (since retired), had ruled by a two to one majority that MCI did not have the jurisdiction to formulate the common entrance test and enforce it on private medical colleges.

The new bench issued a notice to all private and minority medical colleges on whose plea SC had scrapped NEET. “Application for oral hearing is granted. Issue notice,” the bench a said in its brief order.

The MCI’s review petition — drafted by senior advocate Nidesh Gupta — assailed the logic put forth in the majority judgment authored by justice Kabir. It said it had ignored the settled principles laid down by SC’s constitution benches. There was wrong appreciation of facts relating to medical admissions.

CHAMBER MATTER SECTION XVIA
S U P R E M E C O U R T O F I N D I A
RECORD OF PROCEEDINGS
 REVIEW PETITION (C) NO(s). 2159-2268 OF 2013 IN T.C.(C)
98,99,100,101,102,103,104,105,107,108,110 AND
111/2012,112,113-114,115-116,117-118,119,120,121-122,123-
124,125-127,128-130,131,132-134 AND 135-137/2012,138-139,142,144
AND 145/2012,1,2,3,4,5/2013,7,8,9,10,11,12-13,14-
15,16,17,18,19,20,21-22,23-24,25,30,53,58,59,60,61,62,72,73,75
AND 76/2013,
28-29,31-32,33-36,37-38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,63-
65,66-69,70-71,107 AND 108/2013
MEDICAL COUNCIL OF INDIA Petitioner(s)
Vs.
CHRISTIAN MED. COLLEGE VELLORE & ORS. Respondent(s)
(WITH APPLN.(S) FOR STAY AND PERMISSION TO ALLOW THE 1ST
LISTING HEARING OF REVIEW PETITION IN OPEN COURT)
 WITH
R.P(C)No.2048-2157/2013 In
T.C.No.98,99,100,101,102,103,104,105,107,108,110 AND
111/2012,112,113-114,115-116,117-118,119,120,121-122,123-
124,125-127,128-130,131,132-134 AND 135-137/2012,138-139,142,144
AND 145/2012,1,2,3,4,5/2013,7,8,9,10,11,12-13,14-
15,16,17,18,19,20,21-22,23-24,25,30,53,58,59,60,61,62,72,73,75
AND 76/2013, 28-29,31-32,33-36,37-
38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,63-65,66-69,70-71,107 AND
108/2013
(WITH APPLN.(S) FOR PERMISSION TO ALLOW THE HEARING OF
REVIEW PETITION IN OPEN COURT AND PLACING ADDL.FACTS AND
DOCUMENTS ON RECORD) WITH
R.P(C)No.1956/2013 In T.C.(C)No.101/2012
Date: 23/10/2013 These Petitions were circulated today.
CORAM : HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE H.L. DATTU
 HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE ANIL R. DAVE
 HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE VIKRAMAJIT SEN
By Circulation
 UPON perusing papers the Court made the following
O R D E R
Application for oral hearing is granted.
Issue notice.
 [ Charanjeet Kaur ] [ Vinod Kulvi ]  Court Master Asstt. Registrar

The Supreme Court has agreed for an oral hearing

But there are no further orders of listing of the case in SC website.

 

After NEET debacle, online medical PG entrance test awaits S C nod

October 19, 2013

The National Board of Examination (NBE) has approached the Supreme Court seeking permission to hold online All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance test (AIPGME).

In a significant move, the National Board of Examination (NBE) has approached the Supreme Court seeking permission to hold online All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance test (AIPGME) for filling up the 50 per cent quota seats.

The Supreme Court will hear the NBE’s plea on October 21.

If the apex court grants permission to the NBE, which has got the nod from the Health Ministry, around one lakh medical seat aspirants stand to benefit from the measure. Till now, the AIPGME tests were being conducted by the All India Institute of Medical Sciences.

The Supreme Court will hear the NBE’s plea on October 21.

The move assumes significance as the SC on July 18 had quashed the National Entrance Eligibility Test (NEET) from the academic year 2014. A three-member SC bench had set aside a Medical Council of India notification mandating NEET both for under and postgraduate medical and dental courses in government and private institutions. The Health Ministry, however, had sought review of the apex judgment.
“It has become necessary for the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to revive the previous regime for filling the PG medical seats for the year 2014 and onwards by holding All India Entrance Examination for Post-Graduate Courses for filling the 50 per cwnt All India Quota Seats,” NBE Additional Director Anurag Agarwal said in the petition.

The NBE, which conducted the last year’s NEET exam, proposes to conduct the post graduate medical entrance exams between November 23 and December 6, 2013.

 The Statesman

State to hold own medical entrance test

Chief minister’s approval awaited

18 October

Pradip Chatterjee   pchatterjee@thestatesman.net

Kolkata, 18 October The state government is set to conduct state level medical entrance examination for admission to undergraduate and post-graduate medical courses for the current academic session.

Senior health officials recently sent a letter to the Chief Minister seeking her approval following which the department will make its formal announcement of the examination. Sources said that senior officials of the department recently convened a meeting and decided to hold the examination in April next year for the 2014-15 academic year.

The decision serves as a breather to 70,000 odd aspirants who sit for the examination every year. They were anxious to know which examination they will have to take, after the Supreme Court cancelled the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET).
The Medical Council of India (MCI) and the Central government have filed a review petition but whether the highest court will accept the petition will be decided on 23 October in a hearing.
There are around 2,818 vacancies in the undergraduate medical courses in the state among which around 350 are reserved for management and NRI quota.
The students were confused as they did not know which examination they had to take, be it a state level examination or All India pre-medical or pre-dental entrance test (AIPMT), after its notification was issued by Central Board of Secondary Education  (CBSE) on 27 September 2013.  Fifteen per cent of all medical seats in the country is reserved for AIPMT. But the majority of the students opting for Bengali as a medium cannot sit for the AIPMT as there is no option for writing papers in this language.

The state level medical entrance examinations were suspended last year, when the health department issued order HS-243/12 cancelling the undergraduate medical entrance examination conducted by the Joint Entrance Board after the Medical Council of India (MCI) introduced NEET, (national level common medical entrance).

Several private institutions went to the Supreme Court challenging the introduction of NEET on various grounds. In an interim order on 13 December 2012, the Supreme Court however asked the states to conduct their own medical entrance examination for 2013-14 academic session, following which many states held the examinations, but West Bengal did not.  As a result, the admission process was delayed by five months as the health department generally makes the official announcement in June every year. A JEE board official said they are equipped to conduct the examination in time but are yet to receive the government order.

                                                The Statesman

Admission, subject to 5 yrs contractual service at ESI

16 Sep 2013

Statesman news service   Kolkata, 15 September ESI Post-Graduate Institute of Medical Sciences & Research, Joka has issued a notification for admission to its undergraduate medical courses, asking candidates to sign a bond, making it compulsory for them to serve in any ESI hospital for a period of five years. if they desire to pursue studies in the college. The incident has evoked sharp reactions among the medical aspirants in the state as it will affect the career of the budding doctors. The notification said that all the candidates seeking admission to any ESIC Medical Education Institution have to execute bond to serve in the ESIC/ ESI scheme medical institutions run by the state government and serve there for five years. Experts in the field said that if the candidates execute the bond they will be liable to serve in any ESI hospitals for a minimum period of 5 years after obtaining their undergraduate degrees which will affect the career of the future generation doctors. The notification roused confusion among the candidates as they said, entering into a bond may affect the future of these students. Those who will sign the bond will have to provide services in the specified medical colleges while the other candidates obtaining degrees from other medical colleges can pursue the post graduate courses. These candidates have to wait for next five years to pursue further studies. They will have to serve on contractual basis. Ms Debleena Chakraborty, a medical aspirant who ranked 1427 in the national level medical entrance examination said: “I did not opt for this medical college as by the virtue of the bonds signed by the candidates, they have to spend their prime in the hospitals. The students who want to become a doctor in government hospitals by clearing the PSC examinations will be not be able to join the services.” Incidentally the state government had earlier announced that doctors serving in the rural areas will get some benefits in the higher studies. But its plans were not properly executed. Dr Amiya Kumar Maity, a medical expert in the city said: “The system of signing the bond is absolutely unconstitutional. Even the Medical Council of India (MCI) has no specific rule like this. The Centre and the MCI were trying to introduce the rural services for the doctors for one year.”

The Statesman

MBBS: Health dept issues counselling notification in violation of SC order          28 Aug 2013

Kolkata, 27 August The state health department has issued a fresh notification for the third round of counselling for admission to MBBS and BDS courses, flouting an order of the Supreme Court.
The notification, dated 21 August asked the candidates who had cleared the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) to submit their registration fees through e-challan between 23 August and2 September.

Experts said the decision to conduct a third round of counselling violated the SC order as the court had quashed the examination, validating only those admissions which have already been made, or the process of which had already been started at the time of the order. They also feel that the future of around 1200 candidates may be in jeopardy if their admissions get cancelled in the future.

On previous occasions, Calcutta High Court had scrapped the candidature of some MD/MS students whose admissions were done in violation of guideline framed by the Medical Council of India.
The SC in its 18 July order, declared the NEET to be unconstitutional,but validated admissions which were already done before the order was issued, or those for which the process had already been started by the states and private medical colleges on the basis of NEET. But the state health department issued a fresh notification for the third round of counselling only six days ago, which  is not in keeping with the order of the highest court. The parents of many of the candidates are planning to approach Calcutta High Court against the decision.

 

To

Ms. Mamata Banerjee,

Hon’ble Chief Minister

Govt. of West Bengal

Writer’s Building  Kolkata -700001

 Sub :   Regarding the Review Petition filed by a NGO challenging the Final Verdict of National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) where NEET is quashed by the Supreme Court saying it unconstitutional on 18th July, 2013 in case of TC (C) No. 98/2012

Respected madam,

With due respect and humble submission I like to draw your kind attention  regarding following matter :

Dr. Maity Educational and Medical Research Institute Pvt. Ltd. had filed a writ petition at Kolkata High Court against Union Govt. of India and Medical Council of India, as occurrence of National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) is unconstitutional.  Afterwards, MCI made a transfer petition of the said case from Kolkata High Court to Hon’ble Supreme Court of India vide no. 142/2012 @ T.P.(C) No.364 of 2012.

On 13/05/2013 in an interim order, the bench of Chief Justice Altamas Kabir and Justices A R Dave and Vikramjit Sen said “students who aspire to gain entry into medical colleges at the MBBS, BDS and the post-graduate level have been caught in a legal tangle for no fault of theirs and are the victims of policy decisions”.

On 18th July the Hon’ble SC of India has delivered the final verdict on NEET case of TC (C) No. 98/2012 and other related 114 cases. In 203 pages order, the SC quashed the applicability of NEET. The SC ordered that NEET is unconstitutional and it is against the article 19, 25, 26, 29, 30, 370, 371D etc. of Indian constitution.

Some Central Govt. official’s opinion is that review petition may fail. Central Govt. has not yet taken the final decision of review petition of SC verdict. Tamil Nadu Chief Minister Jayalalithaa urged Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to drop the Centre’s move to reintroduce NEET and abide by the Supreme Court ruling. Further, I, Dr. A. K. Maity vide a letter dated 31.07.2013 and many others also requested Hon’ble PM to restrain the Central’s move to review petition.

In the mean time, on 5th August, 2013, a NGO, Sankalp has filed a review petition of the Final Verdict of National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET).

Success rate in NEET 2013 among first 20 rank-holders in Higher Secondary Exam – 2013, is negligible. Also most of the talented and brilliant HS 2013 students either not appeared in NEET due to dissimilarity & vast syllabus in NEET and who have even appeared their result is not satisfactory. If state holds the Medical Entrance examination this year by their own, majority of these students will be repeater for this year also. 33047 students from West Bengal were appeared NEET 2013. In 2014 if State Medical Entrance occurs the expected number of examinee will be more or less 70,000.

For any entrance examination, University/Joint Entrance Board have to take necessary preparations from at least five to seven months before. Post Graduate Medical Entrance usually occurs in month of January. Now it remains only 4-5 months time to take preparation by students or university both. Last date for Post Graduate admission is 31st May, every year. About 7 months left for Under Graduate Medical (MBBS/BDS) Entrance Examination.

Review Petition or appeal to higher bench is an endless process. Who will be defeated in legal battle obviously will move to Constitutional Bench. It may take 5 to 10 years time to give the final verdict. For this year, a clear message is to be conveyed by the State Govt. to all 2014 Medical PG & UG aspirants.

At this moment NEET is unconstitutional as per final verdict of SC. State must take their own Medical UG & PG Entrance. In future by order of SC, if it is necessary to change the system of Medical UG/PG Entrance Exam, state must change as per, giving sufficient time to aspirants for preparation. If needed State must be a PARTY of the Review Petition case ongoing at the SC.

My appeal before you, to consider the gravity of the matter to remove all confusions, anxiety and frustration among students and guardians. And take an urgent action to rescue from this grave situation.

Thanking you,

With best regards ,

Yours sincerely,

DR. A. K Maity, Director                                Dated-06/08/2013

Dr. Maity Educational and Medical

Research Institute Pvt. Ltd

515/1 Lake Gardens , Kolkata-700045,

Ph. No. 9143159986 /9830173422   E.mail : drmaity_rainbow@rediffmail.com

Copy to – 1)  Hon’ble   Minister of Higher Education Govt. of  WB , 2)  principal Secretary Health & Family Welfare Dept. Govt. of  West Bengal ,  3) Vice-Chancellor,The West Bengal University of Health Sciences (WBUHS), 4)  Additional Chief Secretary Health & Family Welfare Dept. Govt. of  West Bengal , 5)  Director of Medical Education, Govt. of  West Bengal  6) Secretary Higher Education Govt. of  West Bengal 7) Spl. Secretary (MES & MERT) Govt. of  West Bengal,  8)The Chairman  of  WBJEE Board

Times of India

20-07-2013

        HS students cheer bar on national med test

Kolkata: The Supreme Court order to scrap the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) has been welcomed by state-board students, while those under the CBSE and ISC boards felt they would have to “reorient” their study methods.
Higher Secondary students felt their prospects would brighten if the medical entrance test is again conducted by the West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinatuon (WBJEE) board.
The reason is simple to understand: the medical entrance test, when conducted by WBJEE, will be based on the Higher Secondary syllabus, while NEET — held by the Medical Council of India (MCI) — was according to the NCERT syllabus, which was more in line with that of ISC and CBSE.
After the apex court’s order on Thursday, the state government is planning to revert to the WBJEE for entry to undergraduate medical seats. “In 2013, the medical entrance tests was conducted by the MCI,” said Sushanta Kumar Bandyopadhyay, the director of medical education. “Now, we’ll revert to the WBJEE system, following the court order. This year’s students, however, will be admitted to medical colleges based on their performance in NEET 2013.”
Dr A K Maity, the director of Dr Maity’s Educational & Medical Research Institute, said their institute had moved Supreme Court challenging the constitutional validity of NEET. He said that many Higher Secondary toppers this year had failed to crack NEET. “If the 2014 test is conducted by the WBJEE, like before, more students from the West Bengal board would figure in the medical entrance list, as the syllabus would be more in sync with the HS syllabus,” he added.

 

The Statesman

NEET order fallout: State level medical examination uncertain

10 Aug 2013 Pradip Chatterjee  pchatterjee@thestatesman.net

With the undergraduate and postgraduate medical examinations just seven months away, the state health department is faced with the big challenge of conducting them.

The Supreme Court quashed the holding of the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) and declared it as unconstitutional. Many review petitions have been filed challenging the verdict and the Court may take some years to give its final verdict on the matter.

It may be mentioned that West Bengal is one of the few states, which did not conduct the medical entrance examination even after the Supreme Court in its interim order had instructed that all the states, medical colleges and universities could conduct the entrance examination.

Experts in the field, felt that if the state does not start the process of conducting the medical entrance examination now, it will face some problems as only four to five months are left for the post-graduate medical entrance and seven months are left for the under-graduate entrance. A delay in the academic session may affect the health services in the government hospitals as there will be an acute shortage of doctors.
The reluctance of the state health department to conduct state level medical examination have put the future of thousands of candidates in a fix as many eligible candidates could not take part in the examination as the syllabus of the NEET is quite different from the Joint Entrance Medical Examination,” said Dr AK Maity, an expert in the field.

The number of successful candidates in NEET 2013 is negligible. Many meritorious candidates securing top ranks in the Higher Secondary examination did not appear in NEET due to the syllabus which is unknown to them.

The vast syllabus is another factor for which many meritorious students could not do well.

Around 33047 students from West Bengal appeared in NEET 2013. In the next year the number of examinees will be around 70,000 if the State Medical Entrance occurs in its scheduled time.

“The Joint Entrance Board has to make necessary preparations from at least five to seven months before. Post Graduate Medical Entrance usually occurs in the month of January.”

“Now only four to five months time remains for the students and the university. Last date for post graduate admission is 31st May, every year. About seven months are left for the undergraduate medical (MBBS/BDS) entrance examination,” Dr Maity added.

 

TIMES OF INDIA

CM pledges help to med student

TIMES NEWS NETWORK  06-08-2013

Kolkata: Sanat Bapari could see a ray of hope on Monday, thanks to a TOI report that gave an account of his financial crisis that nearly forced him to give up his dream of studying medicine.

Bapari cracked the medical entrance exam and got admitted to Malda Medical College this year, but did not know if he could afford to continue with the MBBS course. Seeing the TOI report on Monday, chief minister Mamata Banerjee asked her officers to get in touch with him so that she could provide the required support from the CM’s relief fund.

The CMO contacted Bongaon SDO Abhijit Bhattacharya, asking for Bapari’s details. The SDO immediately sent officials to Bapari’s home to verify the facts and collect his documents.

Bapari had taken admission to the BVSc course in 2012, too, but had to drop out due to financial crunch. Now he is much relieved as he was uncertain of being able to pay for his hostel accommodation and the tuition fees at Malda Medical College.
“The officials from the CMO wanted all details about Bapari so that he can get a scholarship. We have told him to submit all the documents needed for that,” said Bhattacharya.
A CMO official said the chief minister provides support to poor students and for that, they are now short-listing candidates. “We’d be happy to know about more such poor but meritorious students who deserve scholarship,” he said.
    Dr A K Maity of Rainbow who guided Bapari for the medical entrance exam was surprised at the quick response from the CMO. “If the CM is so proactive, Bengal’s condition will surely improve,” he said.

Bapari has, however, already got the first-year MBBS books from Dhanwantary Foundation. Raju Khandelwal of the foundation has promised him all financial help. After reading the TOI report, a top lawyer also wants to sponsor him.
“I have been much relieved ever since the SDO’s men told me about the help promised by the CM. The SDO will meet me on Wednesday,” said Bapari.

 

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