WBJEE 2014 BIOLOGICAL Sc. ANSWER
CATEGORY – I
Q.1 to Q.60 carry one mark each, for which only one option is correct. Any wrong answer will lead to deduction of 1/3 mark.
1. One molecule of triglyceride is produced using ………………..
Ans : (D) Three fatty acids and one glycerol
2. Glutenin is an important protein in……………….
Ans : (B) Wheat
3. Which one of the followings is enriched with a non-reducing sugar ……………..
Ans : (C) Table sugar (Sucrose)
4. Select the CORRECT statement related to mitosis……………….
Ans : (B) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first doubled and then distributed into two daughter cells
5. The frequency of crossing-over occurring between two genes located on the same chromosome depends on……………………….
Ans : (D) Distance between two genes
6. Chlorophyll molecules are located in the………………….
Ans : (A) Thylakoid membrane
7. The primary cell wall is mainly made up of………………………
Ans : (C) Cellulose
8. Which of the folloiwng statements is wrong for sucrose ……………………
Ans : (D) It is comprised of maltose and fructose
9. Which of the followings is always ABSENT in prokaryotic cells ……………….
Ans : (B) Mitochondria
10. Which of the following tissues provide maximum mechanical support to plant organs …………….
Ans : (A) Sclerenchyma
11. The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of glucose is……………..
Ans : (C) 1.0
12. Cross-pollination through insect agent is called…………………………..
Ans : (C) Entomophily
13. Cleistogamous flowers are ……………………..
Ans : (B) ) Bisexual flowers which remain closed
14. Which one of the following is a growth regulator produced by plants ……………..
Ans : (B) Zeatin
Hints : Zeatin is a growth regulator produced by plants. Naphthalene acetic acid is synthetic auxin, also a growth regulator.
15. In apple, the edible portion is…………………
Ans : (D) Thalamus
16. Anish is having colour-blindness and married to Sheela, who is not colour-blind. What is the chance that their son will have the disease …………………………
Ans : (D) 0%
Hints : Marriage between Sheela (XX) and Anish (XcY) : Colour blind daughter and normal son.
17. Insect pest resistant Bt-cotton plant was developed using……………
Ans : (D) Transgenic technology
18. In which one of the followings, expenditure of energy is required …………….
Ans : (C) Active transport
19. Emasculation ensures cross-pollination in…………………..
Ans : (B) Bisexual flower
20. The protein component of a holoenzyme is known as
Ans : (D) Apoenzyme
Hints : the non-protein part of an enzyme is called the prosthetic group, while the proteinic part is apoenzyme. Apoenzyme along with the prosthetic group constitute the holoenzyme.
21. Pseudopodia are produced by…………………….
(A) Plasma Cell (B) Mast Cell
(C) Adipose Cell (D) Fibroblast Cell
Ans : Question may be ambiguous.
In humans, many cell types are able to move in an amoeboid fashion. These include plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophil granulocytes and mast cells within tissues, but also lymphocytes and monocytes in the blood.
22. Formation of polysome does not require……………..
Ans : (D) snRNA
23. Km is …………………..
Ans : (C) Constant
24. Proteins helping in Kinetocore formation of yeast are…………………
Ans : (D) CBF2, CBF3 and Kar3P
25. Juvenile hormone in insects is released from
Ans : (C) Corpora Allata
26. Genes which are located only in the X-Chromosome are known as
(A) Epistasis genes (B) Holandrik genes (C) Operator genes (D) Antiepistasis genes
Ans : Question may be ambiguous.
Of the four answer option, favour goes toward (A) Epistasis genes.
27. Industrial Melanism is an ………………
Ans : (D) Evidence in favour of Natural Selection
Hints : Industrial melanism is an example of directional selection (evidence of Natural Selection).
28. The concept of Hot-Spot was first introduced by…………..
Ans : (C) Myers
29. With the rise of water temperature, dissolved oxygen………………
Ans : (C) Decreases in amount
30. Intermediate host of malarial parasite is…………………
Ans : (B) Man
31. Which codon is not an indicator of completion of protein synthesis …………………..
(A) UAG (B) AUG (C) UAA (D) UGA
Ans : (B) AUG
Hint. Start Signal : Synthesis of polypeptideis initiated by two initiation codon – AUG or methionine codon and GUG or valine codon.
Stop Signal : Termination of polypeptide chain is signalled by three termination codons -UAA (ochre), UAG (amber) and UGA (opal).
32. ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is a multination international treaty for………………………
Ans : (A) Phasing out green house gases
33. The objective of ‘Ramsar Convention’ was……………………….
Ans : (C) Wetland conservation
34. Which of the following human parasites require mosquito to complete their life-cycle………
Ans : (D) Wuchereria bancrofti and Plasmodium ovale
35. In which diagnostic system, Piezoelectric effect and Reverse Piezoelectric effect are involved………
Ans : (C) USG
36. Main cause of Eutrophication is……………………
Ans : (C) Enrichment of nutrients
37. The body of Rohu fish is covered by………………….
Ans : (A) Cycloid scale but the tail is homocercal
38. Management of National Park is controlled by……………………..
Ans : (B) Central Government
39. Which one is an example of living fossil …………………….
Ans : (D) King crab
40. The removal of ‘Keystone’ species will affect………………………
Ans : (C) The ecosystem
41. Objects less than 0.2 μm in size cannot be seen under light microscope because
Ans : (A) The wave length of visible light is 3900 Å to 7800 Å
42. If the sequence of bases in the coding strand of a double stranded DNA is
5′ – GTTCGAGTC-3′, the sequence of bases in its transcript will be ………………….
Ans : (C) 5′ – GUUCGAGUC-3′
Hints : Transcription occurs in 5′ -3′ (5 to 3) direction.
Base Pairing. Ribonucleoside triphosphates get arranged opposite to the nitrogen bases of sense strand and form complementary pairs such as A opposite T, U opposite A, C opposite G and G opposite C.
43. Immunity that develops in the fetus after receiving antibodies from mother’s blood through placenta is
Ans : (C) Naturally acquired passive immunity
44. The serous membrane which covers the lungs is called………………………….
Ans : (D) Pleura
45. The volume of air that can be breathed in by maximum forced inspiration over and above the normal inspiration is called………………………………
Ans : (B) Inspiratory Reserved Volume
46. How many ATP are produced when one molecule of FADH2 is oxidized to FAD through Electron Transport System……………………
Ans : (A) 2
47. Which valve is present at the opening of coronary sinus…………………….
Ans : (C) Thebesian valve
Hints : Valve at the junction of coronary sinus and right auricle – Thebesian valve
Valve at the junction of superior vena cava and right auricle – valve of superior vena cava – crista terminalis.
48. Which of the following organs does not produce any digestive enzymes………………….
Ans : (C) Liver
49. The disease that occurs in mature adult human being due to deficiency of calciferol is……….
Ans : (B) Osteomalacia
50. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by phagocytosis
Ans : (C) Neutrophil and Monocyte
51. Which excitatory neurotransmitter is involved in the transmission of impulse at the neuro-muscular junction……………………
Ans : (C) Acetyl choline
52. Which area of cerebral cortex is responsible for the interpretation of speech…………..
Ans : (B) Wernicke’s area
Hints : Brocca’s area : (area 44) is a region in posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the brain. It is Motor area for speech and linked with speech production. Broca’s area initiates the appropriate movements of the lips, tongue.
Wernicke’s area : (area 22) is a region in the posteriormost part of the superior temporal gyrus of the brain. It is auditory psychic area and interpretes and understands the word of speech.
53. Which of the following pituitary hormones is secreted without the involvement of a releasing hormone (RH)……………
Ans : (C) Oxytocin
54. Which of the following hormones is a derivative of fatty acid………………………..
Ans : (D) Prostaglandins
55. Which of the followings is NOT involved in muscular contraction…………………
Ans : (D) Magnesium ion
56. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron is responsible for……………….
Ans : (C) Selective reabsorption of glucose, amino acid, NaCl and water
57. Which of the following processes was discovered by Lederberg and Tatum (1946)…………
Ans : (D) Conjugation
Hint : Bacterial conjugation was first demostrated by Joshua Lederberg and Edward Tatum in 1946.
The phenomenon of Transduction was first observed by Zinder and J. Lederberg in 1952.
58. The component of bacteria that retains the crystal violet stain during Gram-staining is………
Ans : (C) Peptidoglycan
59. Which of the following bacteria is observed as chain-like formation………………
Ans : (C) Sreptococcus pyogenes
60. During gene cloning, the enzyme used to join the insert DNA with the plasmid vector is
Ans : (A) DNA ligase
CATEGORY – II
Q.61 to Q.75 carry two marks each, for which only one option is correct. Any wrong answer will lead to deduction of 2/3 mark
61. The partial floral formula of a flower is K(5)C5A(∞)G(5). Which of the following set of information is conveyed here………………….
Ans : (A) Gamosepalous, polypetalous, syncarpous and superior ovary
62. In a plant species, flower colour yellow is dominant over white, and fruit shape round is dominant over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines-one having yellow-flower and round-fruit, and another with white flower and elongated-fruit. About 20 plants survived in F1 progeny. Plants of F1 were allowed to self-fertilize, and about 960 plants survived in F2. If the traits follow Mendelian inheritance, the number of plants would have yellow-flower and round-fruit in F1 and F2 are respectively …………….
Ans : (B) 20, 540
63. Match the items in column I with those in column II, and choose the CORRECT answer.
Column I Column II
P. Control of weeds i. Gibberellin
Q. Induction of germination ii. Cytokinin
R. Ripening of fruit iii. 2, 4-D
S. Delaying of senescence iv. Ethylene
Ans : (B ) P-iii, Q-i, R-iv, S-ii
64. Out of 38 molecules of ATP produced upon aerobic respiration of glucose, the break up in ATP production in glycolysis (P), pyruvate to acetyl-CoA formation (Q) and Krebs cycle (R) is as follows ………………………………
Ans : (B) P = 8, Q = 6, R = 24
65. The correct sequence of organelles in which glycolate and glyoxylate are produced sequentially in photorespiration, is…………………………….
Ans : (B) Chloroplast and peroxisome
66. Cells die at the time of release of secretary materials in…………………………
Ans : (A) Holocrine gland
67. X-ray is needed for………………………..
Ans : (B) CT scanning
68. Which of the following statements is wrong……………………….
Ans : (D) Test tube baby grows following uterine fertilization
69. The correct sequence of embryonic development is…………………
Ans : (C) Zygote – Morula – Blastula – Gastrula – Embryo
70. The time interval of appearance of fever in the malarial patients depends on the types of malaria. The research evidences suggest that such time intervals are – (1) 36 to 48 hours, (2) 48 hours, and (3) 72 hours. If any such patient experiences fever at an interval of 48 hours, then the said patient suffers from………………………
Ans : (D) Mild tertian malaria or Benign tertian malaria
Hints : With a 48-hour cycle fever recur every third day in milld (ovale) tertian malaria caused by P. ovale and benign tertian malaria by P.vivax
71. The structure of E. coli chromosomal DNA is ……………………………
Ans : (A) Double stranded, right handed and circular
72. Absorption of vitamin B12 in human requires “P” glycoprotein secreted form “Q”. The correct choice of P and Q are……………………………………
Ans : (B) P = Intrinsic factor and Q = Stomach
73. What type of cartilaginous tissue is found in the inter-vertebral discs………………………
Ans : (C) White fibrous cartilage
74. If spermatogenesis proceeds too rapidly, inhibin is released. Inhibin reduces the secretion of….
Ans : (B) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
75. Which of the following statements are TRUE for “Motor cortex” ?
(i) It is located in the frontal lobe of cerebral cortex (ii) It contains pyramidal cells
(iii) It is responsible for all visual functions (iv) It is essential for our thought processes
(v) It stimulates wakefulness (vi) It regulates voluntary muscular movements ……………
Ans : (D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
CATEGORY – III
Q.76 to Q.80 carry two marks each, for which one or more than one options may be correct. Marking of correct options will lead to a maximum mark of two on pro rata basis. There will be no negative marking for these questions. However, any marking of wrong option will lead to award of zero mark against the respective question – irrespective of the number of correct options marked.
76. Identify the correct statement (s) in relation to C4 photosynthesis………………………….
Ans : (A) Kranz anatomy is an essential feature for C4 plants
(B) C4 plants have higher water use efficiency than C3 plants
(C) Photrespiration can be minimized when C4 pathway is in operation
77. Genetically improved crop varieties can be developed in laboratory by…………………
Ans : (A) Somatic hybridization
(B) Transgenic technology
(D) Somaclonal variation
78. Sand flies play significant role in spreading Kala-azar because they……………………….
Ans : (B) Convert amastigote into promastigote
(C) Engulf amastigote at the time of blood sucking from the infected persons
(D) Inject promastigote into the body of non-infected persons at the time of blood sucking
79. Which of the following factor(s) increase blood pressure ……………….
Ans : (A) Increase of cardiac output
(B) Constriction of blood vessel
(D) Increase of blood volume
80. Which of the following statement(s) are TRUE?
(A) Antibiotics can kill bacteria but disinfectants do not
(B) Disinfectants have better bactericidal efficiency than antibiotics
(C) Antibiotics are of microbial origin but disinfectants are chemical compounds
(D) Antibiotics can be injected into the patients whereas disinfectants are not
Ans : (C) Antibiotics are of microbial origin but disinfectants are chemical compounds
(D) Antibiotics can be injected into the patients whereas disinfectants are not
Hints : Antibacterial compounds include narrow and wide spectrum antibiotics. Disinfectants include propylene glycol and triethylene glycol, alcohol, oxidizing agents, phenolics.
Antibacterial products can be administered orally, topically or intravenously. Disinfectants can be dispersed in the air or locally applied with cotton rags.
* An antibacterial compound is designed to kill bacteria (bactericidal) or impede their growth (bacteriostatic). A disinfectant compound is a substance applied on non-living objects designed to kill microorganisms (bactericidal).
TIMES OF INDIA
Percentage back in JEE merit list
TIMES NEWS NETWORK
Kolkata : The rethink started after Supreme Court passed an order against CBSEs holding the single medical entrance examination. NEET was scrapped.
A circular issued this year asked state JEE boards to follow the MCI notification of 1997 and revert to the .Thus, we have also decided that the eligibility criteria for merit determination will be on 50% aggregate and 50% in JEE marks in place of percentile, said JEE chairman Bhaskar Gupta on Saturday.
The board has decided to award ranks to all candidates. Even examinees who do not qualify for the e-counselling by bagging a positive point in JEE will be ranked. Till 2013 the board only gave ranks to students who obtained a positive mark. We want to change this because everyone wants to know where they stand with respect to the competition, Gupta said.
Maity Educational and Medical Research Institute Pvt Ltd director Amiya Kumar Maity maintains that the change wont help medical aspirants. Seats will go vacant because many students wouldn’t be able to achieve the requisite 50% marks in JEE examination because the JEE board has reduced the total marks in biology to 100from 200.It was the only subject in which medical students scored more than physics or chemistry, Maity said. He also argued against negative marking. I have written to chief minister Mamata Banerjee and education minister Bratya Basu about my concerns, he said. The board chairman, however, sticks to the negative marking process.
It is clear violation of Medical Council of India (MCI) rules & regulation and also Supreme Court orders. Minimum pass mark for medical in WBJEE – 2014 : General – 50 percentile, SC/ST– 40 percentile, OBC –A, OBC –B – 45 percentile instate of percentage (%).
Ms. Mamata Banerjee,
Hon’ble Chief Minister
Govt. of West Bengal
Writer’s Building Kolkata -700001
Sub : Regarding fresh registration of candidates for the admission to the undergraduate medical courses (MBBS/BDS) for 488 seats in the third round of counseling, clear violation of Medical Council of India (MCI) rules & regulation and also Supreme Court orders.
With due respect and humble submission I like to draw your kind attention regarding following matter :
- The health department, Govt. of West Bengal, has issued the notification for the third round of counseling to conduct fresh registration of candidates on 21 August 2013. But conduction of fresh registration of candidates at this level is flouting rules framed by the Medical Council of India (MCI), a gazette notification on 1 March, 2004 published in Part III Section 4 of the Gazette of India. The future of the candidates will be jeopardized due to the delay in registration which will lead to the cancellation of medical candidature of many students. Same incidence has happened recently for Post Graduate Medical Trainee for the session 2012-15 whose candidature is rejected by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India due to delay admission without maintaining the time schedule of MCI for the course.
- As per notification issued by Director of Medical Education & Ex-Officio Secretary to the Govt. of West Bengal on dated 18.06.2013 it was clear that last date of submission of e-challan for registration in undergraduate medical counseling process for the session 2013-14 was 10th July, 2013. All eligible candidates have to submit their registration fee within 10th July, 2013 only through e-challan.
The Secretary of Medical Council of India by a letter vide memo no. MCI-34(MC)/2012-GEN/158572 dated 08.02.2013 advised all the State Govts. to strictly follow the “Graduate Medical Education Regulations” while making admissions in MBBS Course.
Now the choice locking for 3rd round counseling is between 12th to 15th September, 2013 and process of seat allotment – Round 3 is 16th – 17th September, 2013; Result publication 18th September, 2013; Admission 23rd to 25th September, 2013.
- In MCI Regulations on graduate medical Education -1997, page no. 85-86, also MCI Public Notice dated 25-08-2012 and MCI letter dated 08-02-13 to West Bengal state’s medical education/health secretary & DME, it is clear that seat allotment after 1st round of counseling will be from the waiting list only. Even those who have not joined the course after selection in 1st round, they will also lose the chance of joining in successive 2nd & 3rd rounds of counseling.
All students already admitted to MBBS & BDS courses, transferee students, wait-listed students, and also newly registered students as per notification of 3rd counseling, all together around 1,200 NEET (UG) 2013 ranker for state of West Bengal will be involved in 3rd counseling notification. Total number of vacant seats exist around 488. Last date of admission to MBBS & BDS course for the session is 30th Sept. After the stipulated date, either State or MCI or Central Govt. or Hon’ble High Court have no power to admit student(s) for the course, only Supreme Court can consider the matter.
In this year, Union Territory Chandigarh had also announced fresh registration for the vacant seats of their 3rd round counseling in their place. But in a judgment the High Court of Punjab and Haryana on 08.08.2013 clearly stated mentioning the case of Priya Gupta Versus State of Chhattishgarh & Ors., 2012 (7) SCC 433 that their notification is against MCI Rules. It is, thus, his submission that the U. T. Chandigarh could not have invited fresh applications as in terms of the observations of the Hon’ble Supreme Court none of the authorities are vested with the powers of relaxing, varying or disturbing the time schedule or the procedures of admission as provided in the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court and the Medical Council of India Regulations. In fact, his submission is that the Hon’ble Supreme Court has been quite categorical that to act to the contrary would be a contemptuous and, thus, MCI could not have extended any date without leave of the Hon’ble Supreme Court or give sanctity to a fresh process for vacant seats.
- In the said case of Punjab and Haryana High Court, we may note that one of the submissions of the learned counsel for the MCI is based on the observations made in Priya Gupta Versus State of Chhattishgarh & Ors., 2012 (7) SCC 433. It is his contention that the schedules as stated therein cannot be altered as they have been declared by the Hon’ble Supreme Court to be the law of land in terms of Article 141(Article 141 in The Constitution Of India 1949 Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India) of the Constitution of India and forming part of the regulations of the MCI.
- That the fresh set of seats will get added to the system, if any, which is due to latest approvals of MCI, it was announced by Medical Counseling Committee to students before 1st round of counseling.
Accordingly the Hon’ble Supreme Court on India in the final verdict of case no. TC (C) 98/2012 order dated 18.07.2013 in clause 163 it was mentioned likewise “ The Transferred Cases and the Writ Petitions are, therefore, allowed and the impugned Notifications Nos. MCI-31(1)/2010-MED/49068, and MCI.18(1)/2010-MED/49070, both dated 21st December, 2010, published by the Medical Council of India along with Notification Nos. DE-22-2012 dated 31st May, 2012, published by the Dental Council of India and the amended Regulations sought to be implemented thereunder along with Notification Nos. DE-22-2012 dated 31st May, 2012, published by the Dental Council of India, are hereby quashed. This will not, however, invalidate actions so far taken under the amended Regulations, including the admissions already given on the basis of the NEET conducted by the Medical Council of India, the Dental Council of India and other private medical institutions, and the same shall be valid for all purposes.”
After the above mentioned order of the Apex Court, any further notification regarding new registration for counseling after the date 18th July, 2013, is a clear invalidate action. It is a clear violation of the order of the Supreme Court.
7. In Frequently asked questions for Round-3 (NEW) by MCC it is mentioned who are eligible and who are not.
Q. No. 15: Who are eligible for 3rd Round of allotment ?
Group–I : Registered candidates who did not get any seat allotment
in the 1st or 2nd round of seat allotment and are required to submit fresh choices as per the vacancies shown.
Group-II : Registered candidates , whose allotted Seats in 1st Round or 2nd round have been cancelled due non-production of requisite documents
GROUP-III : Registered candidates, whose allotted reserved quota
Seats in 1st Round or 2nd round have been cancelled during the document verification, due to change of Category from reserved to Unreserved or PH status from Yes to No, would still be eligible in the next round of seat allotment subject to fulfillment of eligibility conditions, with changed criteria. They also require submitting fresh choices.
Group–IV: Candidates who have given option for participation in 3rd round at the time of 1st and/or 2nd round reporting at allotted institutions.
Group V: Not reported due to any reason at Allotted Institute after seat allotment in either 1st or 2nd rounds.
Group VI: Reported & Withdrawn/resigned from seat at the Allotted Institute
Group VII: Candidates who previously did not opt for up-gradation for round 3 at the time of taking admission.
Group VIII: Candidates who have newly registered after submission of
e-challan within the stipulated days of online registration for round 3.
As per rules and regulation of MCI, only Group I and Group IV candidates can join the 3rd round of counseling for vacant seats. In notification for 3rd round of counseling giving a fresh chance for admission to all other Groups except mentioned two, is against Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 1997.
Admission of many student may be cancelled. As a result many seats will remain vacant as 30th September is the last day for undergraduate admission. A major chaotic situation will arise like the mentioned post graduate seats of 2012-15 session. About 1500 students and also all the permitted colleges like IQ City Medical College Durgapur, Joka ESIC Medical College, Murshidabad, Malda Medical College etc will face great troubles. There will be huge monetary loss of State Govt. and Health Care System will run through severe disturbance and those officials related with the violation of schedule of completion of Admission Process for 1st MBBS Course, will be under the provision of contempt of Court as per Supreme Court Order.
My appeal before you, to consider the gravity of the matter take necessary action to rescue the students from this grave situation.
With best regards ,
DR. A. K Maity, Director Dated-13/09/2013
Dr. Maity Educational and Medical
Research Institute Pvt. Ltd
515/1 Lake Gardens , Kolkata-700045,
Ph. No. 9143159986 /9830173422
E.mail : firstname.lastname@example.org
Enclo : 1. Copy of Important Notification about 3rd Round MBBS/BDS counseling of Sate of West Bengal.
2. Copy of MCI Circular dated 08-02-2013 to the State Health Secretary & DME about selection norms.
3. Order copy of HC Punjab & Haryana, case of Swati Sihag
4. Copy of MCI Public Notice on 25-08-2012 regarding time schedule.
Copy to – 1. Chairman, MCC & Special Secretary Health & Family Welfare
Dept. Govt. of West Bengal , 2) Vice-Chancellor, The West Bengal University of Health Sciences (WBUHS), 3) Director of Medical Education, Govt. of West Bengal 4) Principal Secretary Higher Education Govt. of West Bengal
Students may pay for state flouting MCI rules
07 Sep 2013
The state health department’s decision to conduct fresh registration for the admission of candidates to the undergraduate medical courses in the third round of counselling, flouting one of the key rules framed by the Medical Council of India (MCI), may lead to the cancellation of medical seats in many of the state-run medical colleges from the next academic session.
The MCI, in a gazette notification on 1 March, 2004 said that all the states and medical colleges must complete their registration from June to July every year. The Supreme Court, in an order, asked the states to strictly follow the MCI guideline, the violation of which may lead to contempt of court, fines and imprisonment.
The health department issued notification for the third round of counseling to conduct fresh registration for the candidates on 21 August this year. Hence, the future of the candidates may be jeopardised due to the delay in registration of candidates.
Sources in the health department said that around 1,200 medical aspirants would get admission through the third round of counselling. Of them, around 341 seats in the state will be filled by the candidates whose names were featured in the merit list but who did not get an admission in the permitted medical colleges. The rest are the candidates who had already got admission in some of the medical colleges in the districts and are participating in the third round of counselling to secure a seat in one of the city medical colleges. Permitted medical colleges will lose some of the existing seats if the MCI does not approve the new registration and these permitted colleges will not be able to admit the candidates after 30 September, as per the MCI rule.
Permitted medical colleges are those who need the MCI’s permission for admitting candidates annually. These are the College of Medicine & Sagore Dutta Hospital in Kamarhati, College of Medicine and JNM Hospital in Kalyani, Murshidabad Medical College and Hospital, Malda Medical College and Hospital, ESIC-PGIMSR & Medical College Joka, and a private medical college, IQ City Medical Durgapur. Dr Amiya Kumar Maity, a medical expert, said: “The state government should be little cautious while issuing a notification. There had been instances where the MCI did not regularise the courses in the state due to the violation of rules.”
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Quota for Medical Seats
|The following reservation quota is prescribed for admission to undergraduate and postgraduate medical courses under the All India Quota and central Government institutions:i. Scheduled Castes –15% ii. Scheduled Tribes – 7.5%iii. Other Backward Classes – 27% (only in central Government Institutions/ Universities). The benefit of reservation can be extended only to the OBCs included in the Central List and the implementation of reservations for OBCs has to be without any change in the seats available for Unreserved Category.Further, the regulations of Medical Council of India’s (MCI) provides that for both PG and UG, 3% seats of the annual sanctioned intake capacity shall be filled up by candidates with locomotors disability of lower limbs between 50% to 70% and in case the quota remains unfilled on account of unavailability of such candidates then such unfilled seats shall be filled by candidates with locomotors disability of lower limbs between 40% to 50%.No specific case has been reported to this Ministry by Delhi University and Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University.This information was given by the Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare ShriGhulamNabi Azad in written reply to a question in the LokSabha today.BN/BK/HB (Release ID :98913)|
MBBS: Health dept issues counselling notification in violation of SC order
28 Aug 2013
Kolkata, 27 August The state health department has issued a fresh notification for the third round of counselling for admission to MBBS and BDS courses, flouting an order of the Supreme Court.
The notification, dated 21 August asked the candidates who had cleared the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) to submit their registration fees through e-challan between 23 August and2 September.
Experts said the decision to conduct a third round of counselling violated the SC order as the court had quashed the examination, validating only those admissions which have already been made, or the process of which had already been started at the time of the order. They also feel that the future of around 1200 candidates may be in jeopardy if their admissions get cancelled in the future.
On previous occasions, Calcutta High Court had scrapped the candidature of some MD/MS students whose admissions were done in violation of guideline framed by the Medical Council of India.
The SC in its 18 July order, declared the NEET to be unconstitutional,but validated admissions which were already done before the order was issued, or those for which the process had already been started by the states and private medical colleges on the basis of NEET. But the state health department issued a fresh notification for the third round of counselling only six days ago, which is not in keeping with the order of the highest court. The parents of many of the candidates are planning to approach Calcutta High Court against the decision.
In a significant order, the Punjab and Haryana High Court on Thursday quashed a controversial notification to extend the last date of receiving applications for the enhanced 50 MBBS seats at the Government Medical College and Hospital (GMCH) in Sector 32, Chandigarh.
The GMCH-32 had, on August 1, issued the notification to effectively extend the last date of applications for the undergraduate course from the original June 24, as was mentioned in the prospectus, to August 6.
Also, the High Court directed the Chandigarh Administration and the GMCH-32 authorities to reject all such applications, which were received after June 24, which was the last date of receiving applications.
The High Court further ordered to proceed with the counselling, which was scheduled to begin at 9.30 am on Thursday but was on Wednesday postponed till the disposal of the case.
A bench, headed by Justice Rakesh Kumar Jain pronounced the order in an open court on a writ petition filed by an aggrieved student Arpit Agrawal, who had challenged the calling of fresh applications for the additional 50 undergraduate seats at GMCH-32.
Counsels for the petitioners further prayed before the court to take up the matter of alleged acceptance of incomplete applications against whose names various deficiencies were pointed out in the list of eligible candidates which was published by the GMCH-32, against the terms and conditions of the prospectus and were liable to be rejected.
On this issue, the court allowed the petitioner to reserve the right to take up the matter when more information is available in this regard.
It is pertinent to note that several such candidates had already been selected in the first round of counselling held on July 29 and 30.The bench also took note of the fact that the last date for admission to the MBBS/BDS course for the current session 2013-2014 was September 30, as held by the Supreme Court in its order passed on July 4 in Mridul Dhar’s case.
Earlier, the senior standing counsel for Chandigarh Administration Sanjay Kaushal, while defending the GMCH-32’s action, argued that the Medical Council of India (MCI) had invited proposals from Government Medical Colleges for additional seats of MBBS on February 8, and accordingly the GMCH-32 had applied for the increase in MBBS seats from 50 to 100 on July 12, and the same was received by MCI on July 15.
Further, MCI raised certain objections to the proposals on the ground of certain deficiencies, which were removed later. “Accordingly, a fresh admission notice was issued on August 1 for inviting fresh applications,” he contended.
The petitioner’s counsels Puneet Gupta and Anil Rana had contended that approximately 1,600 MBBS seats were increased in 32 Government Medical Colleges across the country and no other college or state government had inviting fresh applications for the increased seats and were using the available merit list of candidates, who had already registered with the concerned medical colleges or state governments.
The petitioner had also alleged several irregularities in the admission process at GMCH-32 while accepting applications which were either incomplete or late. “The first list, which was published by GMCH-32 on July 4 (10 days after the last date of application), had only 127 names in it.
Times of India
HC jolt to late MBBS applicants
TNN Aug 9, 2013, 04.03AM IST
CHANDIGARH: Hopes of several aspirants from Tricity — who had applied for admission to MBBS course in Government Medical College and Hospital (GMCH), Sector 32, Chandigarh, after the increase in seats by Medical Council of India — dashed on Thursday, when the Punjab and Haryana high court quashed the UT’s notification on extending the last date of applications beyond June 24.
With this, all those who had applied for admission to GMCH-32 after June 24, in the wake of increase in seats from 50 to 100, will not be able to get admission to the college. Now, the merit-list will be prepared only on the basis of applications received till June 24.
Justice R K Jain of the HC passed these orders while allowing a petition filed by Arpit Agarwal, who was awaiting admission to GMCH in the second-round of counselling.
On August 1, the Chandigarh administration had issued a notification, extending the last date of application for MBBS course from June 24 to August 6. This action of inviting fresh applications had triggered the controversy.
Fifty are additional seats available due to enhancement in intake capacity, permitted by the Medical Council of India as a one-time measure for the academic session 2013-2014 for 32 medical colleges, government and private, throughout the country.
The petitioner had sought quashing of the decision of the Chandigarh administration of inviting fresh applications, as the last date of submission of registration forms was June 24. “Despite the fact that the prospectus specifically provided that incomplete applications were liable to be rejected and application forms will not be entertained after June 24, the college accepted the incomplete forms as well as accepted forms after the last date,” the petitioner argued.
The petitioner had also claimed that the other colleges, where the enhancement of 50 seats for MBBS course has been permitted, were following the original merit-list without inviting new applications.
However, defending its decision of inviting applications after June 24, the UT administration had said on Wednesday that the decision was taken to give opportunity to those meritorious students who could not apply in view of lesser number of seat advertised earlier.
Punjab Haryana HC asks Chandigarh Administration to reject all MBBS Applications
August 9th, 2013
The High Court of Haryana and Punjab has cancelled the notification issued by Government Medical College and Hospital -32 for last date of submission of applications forms for MBBS course.
The HC has directed the Chandigarh Administration and medical college authorities to reject all applications that were received after the last date which was June 24.
Punjab Haryana HC asks Chandigarh Administration to reject all MBBS Applications. Admissions now are to be made on the basis of the earlier merit list. As per the brochure issued by the GMCH, the last date to receive application forms was June 24.
The controversy came up on account of the administration’s action to invite fresh applications for 50 seats. These are additional seats available due to enhancement in intake capacity, permitted by the Medical Council of India as a one-time measure for the academic session 2013-2014, throughout the country.
Hon’ble Prime Minister of India
Dr. Manmohan Singh.
Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
South Block, Raisina Hill,
New Delhi. India-110011.
Sub – To restrain the Centre’s move to reintroduce National Eligibility cum Entrance Test ( NEET) and abide by the Supreme Court (SC) ruling.
With due respect and humble submission I like to draw your kind attention regarding following matter -:
On 18th July the Hon’ble SC of India has delivered the final verdict on NEET case of TC (C) No. 98/2012 and other related 114 cases. In 203 pages order, the SC quashed the applicability of NEET. The SC ordered that NEET is unconstitutional and it is against the article 19, 25, 26, 29, 30, 370, 371D etc. of Indian constitution.
The Union Health Ministry wants to file a review petition. If so it will be an endless process. This will create confusion and frustration among students and guardians.
NEET (UG) syllabus was same as CBSE syllabus, so the CBSE Board students have got advantage, low talented students got chances in more. Excess syllabus of NEET (UG) in comparison to other Boards, more talented students fail to secure better rank in NEET (UG).
My appeal before you, to consider the gravity of the matter and to restrain the Centre’s move to reintroduce NEET and abide by the SC ruling for the benefits of the majority of the students , guardians and people of India.
With best regards ,
DR. A. K Maity Dated-31/07/2013
515/1 Lake Gardens, Kolkata-700045, PS – Lake
Ph. No. 9143159986 E.mail : email@example.com
Copy to – Ms. Mamata Banerjee, Hon’ble Chief Minister Govt. of West Bengal Writer’s Building Kolkata -700001, Hon’ble Minister of Health and Family welfare, Shri Ghulam Nabi Azad. Nirman Bhawan,. New Delhi-110 011, Chairman, Board of Governors, Medical Council of India ,Vice-Chancellor, The West Bengal University of Health Sciences (WBUHS), The Chairman of WBJEE Board.